piningforChrist
Puritan Board Freshman
maintain that a seminal or radical and habitual faith is to be ascribed to them
Matthew, please define this further for my edification and instruction in the faith.
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.
maintain that a seminal or radical and habitual faith is to be ascribed to them
Originally posted by webmaster
Yes, I've read Edwards. Edwards remains consistent in the same way I am discussing in these last few posts. He was a stalwart advocate for the same truths. Yes, a Paedo-baptist even in spite of Piper. . . .
Contra Calvin, Edwards claimed that most elect children would be regenerated, not in infancy, but in later life, with a conversion experience. Edwards offers two reasons for his position. First, otherwise most of the elect would never experience their sinful natures alone. Following this line of reasoning, Edwards argued that ministers who were converted in their infancy would be at a disadvantage in counselling their congregation, for they would not understand the conversion experiences that their parishioners would undergo. Second, Edwards argues that regenerated infants would never know a deep religious experience of their deliverance from sin and misery. God's covenant relationship with believers and their seed, in the line of continued generations, was being buried.
http://www.cprf.co.uk/articles/newengland.htm
As I have observed already, it is not in this affair, as it is in inspiration, where new truths are suggested: for here is by this light only given a due apprehension of the same truths that are revealed in the word of God; and therefore it is not given without the word. The gospel is made use of in this affair: this light is the "light of the glorious gospel of Christ", 2 Cor. 4:4.
Originally posted by piningforChrist
So, natural faculties are not the cause, but are always used, so he seems to say.
[Edited on 11-16-2005 by piningforChrist]
The word of God is only made use of to convey to the mind the subject matter of this saving instruction: and this indeed it doth convey to us by natural force or influence. It conveys to our minds these and those doctrines; it is the cause of the notion of them in our heads, but not of the sense of the divine excellency of them in our hearts. Indeed a person cannot have spiritual light without the word. But that does not argue, that the word properly causes that light.
Originally posted by piningforChrist
If baptism is at least a proclaimation of the person's treasuring of the divine light in his affections when it is apprehended by the natural faculties, should we baptize infants?
Originally posted by piningforChrist
If baptism is at least a proclaimation of the person's treasuring of the divine light in his affections when it is apprehended by the natural faculties, should we baptize infants?
I suppose there is no other principle of grace in the soul than the very Holy Ghost dwelling in the soul and acting there as a vital principle. To speak of a habit of grace as a natural disposition to act grace, as begotten in the soul by the first communication of Divine light, and as the natural and necessary consequence of the first light, it seems in some respects to carry a wrong idea with it. Indeed the first exercise of grace in the first light has a tendency to future acts, as from an abiding principle, by grace and by the covenant of God; but not by any natural force. The giving one gracious discovery or act of grace, or a thousand, has no proper natural tendency to cause an abiding habit of grace for the future; nor any otherwise than by Divine constitution and covenant. But all succeeding acts of grace must be as immediately, and, to all intents and purposes, as much from the immediate acting of the Spirit of God on the soul, as the first; and if God should take away His Spirit out of the soul, all habits and acts of grace would of themselves cease as immediately as light ceases in a room when a candle is carried out. And no man has a habit of grace dwelling in him any otherwise than as he has the Holy Spirit dwelling in him in his temple, and acting in union with his natural faculties, after the manner of a vital principle. So that when they act grace, ´tis, in the language of the Apostle, "œnot they, but Christ living in them." Indeed the Spirit of God, united to human faculties, acts very much after the manner of a natural principle or habit. So that one act makes way for another, and so it now settles the soul in a disposition to holy acts; but that it does, so as by grace and covenant, and not from any natural necessity. Edwards, "œTreatise on Grace," in Grosart, Selections, p. 55; reprinted in Treatise on Grace and other posthumously published writings, by Jonathan Edwards, edited, with an Introduction by Paul Helm (Cambridge: James Clark & Co. Ltd., 1971), pp. 74-75. Cf. the discussion of Bruce Stephens in his "œChanging Conceptions of the Holy Spirit in American Protestant Theology From Jonathan Edwards to Charles G. Finney," St. Luke Journal 33 (June 1990): 209-223.
Originally posted by piningforChrist
I know what the confession states. Please share your view, if you don't mind. Since baptism marks faith expressed, it is necessarily tied to immersion of believers. Please contradict that statement from Scripture, not from the confession (though the confession is supposed to be a summation of Scripture, in this point it is in error, that is my proposition).
[Edited on 11-16-2005 by piningforChrist]
Originally posted by piningforChrist
Since baptism marks faith expressed, it is necessarily tied to immersion of believers.
[Edited on 11-16-2005 by piningforChrist]
Originally posted by webmaster
Originally posted by piningforChrist
Since baptism marks faith expressed, it is necessarily tied to immersion of believers.
[Edited on 11-16-2005 by piningforChrist]
Where in the world do the Scriptures even hint this? Where does it say anywhere that the sign of the covenant = faith expressed?
Baptism is a sign. Baptism is a seal. (see covenant signs and seals at Rom. 4:11; Col. 2:11-12). Where do the Scriptures say that "Baptism is to be administered only to those who express faith?" Huh? I know of no credo-baptist through HISTORY that asserts they can prove that statement Scripturally. Rather, they deductively come to conlcusions about baptism by a dispensational hermeneutic appealing to NT passages.
[Edited on 11-16-2005 by webmaster]
Please show me a passage in the new testament that forbids placing the sign upon a child? Where did God say to change the program from what He originally decreed, that being placing the sign upon the child.
The great commission commands to make disciples (not all disciples were true believers) and to place the sign upon them.