Andrew P.C.
Puritan Board Junior
Note the way "Israel" is used in Romans 9-11.
9:6, "Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:"
9:27, "Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved:"
The name is uniformly used of the covenanted nation of Israel in contrast to the Gentiles throughout the passage. It would be very odd if it changed its meaning to include the Gentiles in the resolution of v. 26, especially given the fact that v. 25 continues to distinguish Israel and the Gentiles and v. 26 quotes an Old Testament text which is immediately connected with the covenanted nation.
I am curious as of how this can be so, given that it would be contradictory of Paul to say, "They are not all physical Jews which are of Physical Jews". This wouldn't make sense. There is a contrast in that passage. The first Israel is not the second. So when you say "uniformly", I would have to disagree and so would Calvin. John Calvin writes this regarding the use of Israel in verse 6 of Chapter 9:
But when he says, that all who are of Israel are not Israelites, and that all who are of the seed of Abraham are not children, it is a kind of change in the meaning of words, (παρονομασία); for in the first clause he includes the whole race, in the second he refers only to true sons, who were not become degenerated.