Pergamum,
Thanks for the thoughtful responses. I will try to steer clear of a theonomy debate, although I think it might be rather difficult. Let me see if I can respond to your queries below:
Why was it deemed necessary to revise the WCF anyway in 1788? Perhaps because Presbyterians recognized that the writers were also children of their time and that greater civil tolerance was needed? Or because they fell awy from the glorious truths of the Reformation?
Good questions! As you are probably aware, the British targeted the "puritanical" and Preby churches, since they were the seedbed of the War for Independence. Documents such as the SL&C, the Puritan Justification for Taking up Arms, the Dutch Declaration of Independence of 1581, and the Huguenot Vindication for Resisting tyrants, as well as other historic statements of resistance theory were foundational in these churches. Therefore, the Brits burned these churches, slaughtered their pastors, etc.
From the time of the War for Independence (OH, happy Independence Day!) onward, puritanism was in sharp decline. As witness the amending of the WCF after the war. So, yes, I think there was a hermeneutical shift from covenantalism to individualism. In many ways, this can be seen as a result of the "new school" thought of the Great Awakening.
Your bringin up Moses is curious. You do see some differences in civil punishments as they were doled out by Moses and such as were doled out by the colonial Puritans don't you? You cannot pull Moses into this argument to support your case.
Indeed, I do see differences between the Mosaic penalties and those administered under certain colonial magistrates. However, the point I was making is that the argument against the treatment of Williams may be made against Moses. That's all.
Even though our abidiing hermeneutical framework is one of continuity, even the WCF speaks of the state of Israel as now being over and some of those duties as having ceased with that Civil State and now only applying insofar as that tricky "general equity" phrase calls for.
Hey, I thought you didn't want a theonomy debate
Yes, you are right that modern baptists share some similarites and some dissimilarities with the ol' Anabaptists. But many of the drowned Anabaptists were peaceful groups. Cases such as Munster were not common and many evils were perpetrated against those anabaptists. How errant does a theology need to be before it is forcibly put down by the civil state?
Good question. Can't say that I could answer this with absolute certainty, but it appears to me that Scripture requires the magistrate to punish idolatry and propagating a false God. If I'm not mistaken, this was the charge made against the Anabaptists by Zwingli. Whether he was right or not, I am not competent to answer (having not studied this in detail), but the principal I would agree with.
When I read the NT, Jesus was largely uninterested in matters of state and civil laws. He turned aside brothers trying to tell him about inheritances and such. I do not see the focus on civil gov't in the NT such as I see among some (mostly micro-presbyterian) groups today who seem to focus more on civil gov't issues than they do on evangelism and the Great Comission.
I believe that you are mistaken in your assessment of Jesus teaching. However, even if I grant you the point, this does not bear on this discussion. The role of the Messiah in being the savior of the world is not the same as the role of a magistrate. For instance, when a magistrate is attacked by an enemy, is he to turn the other cheek? Is he to allow himself to be captured, and offer no resistance? Jesus was not appointed as a civil magistrate:
Luke 12:13 And one of the company said unto him, Master, speak to my brother, that he divide the inheritance with me. 14 And he said unto him, Man, who made me a judge or a divider over you?
Jesus was not a magistrate, and the magistrate is not to ask in all of his decisions, WWJD, unless he acts as a private person, in matters affecting only himself. Otherwise, when acting as a magistrate, he should ask "WWMD?"
Again, it appears that you have a certain idea in mind, and therefore your appeal to the Great Commission as different from civil activity is, as I will show, somewhat misleading:
Matthew 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. 19 Go ye therefore, and teach
all nations, baptizing
them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: 20
Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.
The Greek grammar indicates rather clearly that the nations are to be made into Christ's disciples: panta ta enthnae. All of the nations of the earth. It is not make disciples from people among the nations, but make disciples of the nations themselves. Anything short of this is a disobedient form of evangelism.
It is my (perhaps naive opinion) that everyone is a theocrat. In other words, everyone's view of civil society is determined by the god or God that he worships. I would not call the position you are representing "willy nilly", but I would call it inconsistent. Either God is King, or someone else is. Either Christ is King of kings, and Lord of lords (an overtly political term) or someone else is. Either the civil law of God determines what is good and evil, or it doesn't. The puritans understood this, and sought to implement it.
Let me ask you: Is it just a bunch of lies that early American Baptists and even those that agreed much with the 1689 met some persecution for their beliefs? Were American baptist persecuted in New England? And did this stem from a theocratci persuasion on the part of the colonists (mostly Presbyterian in early America)?
No, I think you are right on. It is not a bunch of lies, but it did in fact take place that civil penalties were imposed on baptists in the colonies. This is not a fact that I am ashamed of, nor do I think it requires justification. If someone joins a colony that has an established form of religion, should he find it strange that he is required to follow the laws of the colony once he moves there? This line of reasoning is the same used by illegal immigrants in our day: I don't need to obey the laws of the land.
If I'm not mistaken, weren't some of the punishments imposed on the Baptists due to sabbath breaking?
If you have a chance, I would encourage you to read or listen to George Gillespie's "Wholesome Severity Reconciled with Christian Liberty" for a puritan's view of these things:
Wholesome Severity Reconciled with Christian Liberty, by George Gillespie
SermonAudio.com - Wholesome Severity 1/2
This might help to shed a little bit of light on what the "general equity" clause in the WCF is getting at. Or, if you're interested, I have a booklet of quotations by the Divines, Scottish Commissioners and Reformers on these topics, which helps to explain this term "general equity" in more detail.
God bless, and happy theocratic resistance to tyranny day
Adam