Romans922
Puritan Board Professor
1. My understanding of the RPW is that we only worship God in ways commanded by him (putting it simply). Therefore in reading the Psalms there are many positive commands to worship the Lord with singing and with instruments. I understand what anti-instrument people will say: "The instruments were used in the temple worship and are now abrogated". But my questions remains....the RPW looks for positive commands, which it seems we do have for instruments (e.g., Psalm 98). Further, it seems to me that there is not a single verse in ALL of the bible that states that instruments are abrogated or are now forbidden in worshipping the Lord. To be clear instruments should not become idols or a performance.
Grant, great questions. I'll answer this one first and then others if I have time. Not sure why I picked this one first. First, I'd challenge you to think about first - where does God command instruments to be used in His public worship? The first command is under the time of David (during temple worship only), you'll see it in the Chronicles. And this was to cover (grace) the noises and grusomeness of the sacrifices happening. The Psalms that bring about instruments dealing with public worship are all revolved around the temple and sacrifices. All those Psalms are pointing us to Christ, and really is Christ singing with us (as we sing them) [Another doctrine often missed in Psalm singing - union with Christ]. So I would say if there are no commands outside of the Psalms and the OT, then it is a fair implication that instruments were for temple worship and were fulfilled in Christ (and ended/abrogated). It's interesting to look further at the Synagogue worship (public worship) in Scripture - there is never a sliver of reference to instruments in Synagogue worship. Further, just historical until 1950 AD, instruments were not used in the Jewish Synagogue. That shows a bit of understanding post-Christ in the Jewish world. The same however goes for Christian worship, there is no mention of it NT-speaking after Christ's sacrifice on the cross in public worship. The only mention is the following:
Eph 5:19 Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord;
Col 3:16 Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.
Heb 13:15 By him therefore let us offer the sacrifice of praise to God continually, that is, the fruit of our lips giving thanks to his name.
2. On the surface at least, it seems to me to be inconsistent to say "instruments are abrogated but all 150 Psalm lyrics should be sung and none of the lyrics are abrogated". I am not advocating for Psalm Singing to be abrogated, but rather trying to work out the logic.
3. If one takes the position of EP and sings Psalm 98, but forbids instruments, it seems this is a contradiction (with more than 1 of the Psalms).
Not at all brother. Because when we sing of the sacrifices, when we sing of the instruments, when we sing of the temple, in it all we are to be recalling all that is contained in those words (whole doctrine of Christ's love, grace, sacrifice, propitiation, mercy, etc). It isn't simply singing of the temple. It's singing of everything the temple foreshadows, all the temple points us to, all that we would never have if Christ didn't die for us on the cross. Why am I singing of David's righteousness? I'm singing because it's not David's, it's Christ's righteousness which I have in Christ. Same thing. Apply union with Christ to the Psalms. Christ' union with us and our union with Him.
I guess another way to look at it is, for example, when in Ruth, Boaz is the kinsman redeemer. You look to Christ there don't you? Of course, the Psalms are no different, yet sometimes we are tempted to apply different standards because it is the Psalms. The whole of Leviticus - is about Christ. The Psalms are no different.
Hope this gets you thinking more.
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