Grant
Puritan Board Graduate
PB,
I have been striving over the past months to wrap my head around the EP/AO position as being required by the RPW. I am humbly chewing on this and am just looking for some answers to the questions that have arisen as I have set my mind to this topic.
The majority of my strategy has been to incorporate Psalm singing (acapella) in our family worship sessions (1650 Psalter). Further, in my private study, I have been reading and praying through the Psalms. Side-note: I plan on switching to the Crown & Covenant Psalter (blue book) to help my Wife and young daughters with a more modern language, also my Church plans to add this Psalter to the pews in the future. The 1650 Scottish Psalter is still beautiful to me, but I find with those not used to English from 400 years ago, each song line of the Psalm needs an interpreter at times.
Below is what I have been chewing on. Please consider that I am not arguing against the position, but more accurately, I am wrestling with it to try and understand the Word and our Lord more clearly. Also, please read my tone as one of being respectful. My thoughts thus far in my journey (I still Highly Respect the EP/AO position):
Instruments
1. My understanding of the RPW is that we only worship God in ways commanded by him (putting it simply). Therefore in reading the Psalms there are many positive commands to worship the Lord with singing and with instruments. I understand what anti-instrument people will say: "The instruments were used in the temple worship and are now abrogated". But my questions remains....the RPW looks for positive commands, which it seems we do have for instruments (e.g., Psalm 98). Further, it seems to me that there is not a single verse in ALL of the bible that states that instruments are abrogated or are now forbidden in worshipping the Lord. To be clear instruments should not become idols or a performance.
2. On the surface at least, it seems to me to be inconsistent to say "instruments are abrogated but all 150 Psalm lyrics should be sung and none of the lyrics are abrogated". I am not advocating for Psalm Singing to be abrogated, but rather trying to work out the logic.
3. If one takes the position of EP and sings Psalm 98, but forbids instruments, it seems this is a contradiction (with more than 1 of the Psalms).
Singing Psalms Only
I fully believe Christians are required to Sing Psalms in Corporate Worship.
1. I have asked this question before, but I still wrestle with it. It is difficult for me to word, but I will try. All of scripture is True, but at times scripture truthfully documents sinful attitudes. Examples: Pharaoh's rebellion, Jonah's poor attitude, David's actions towards Uriah. Therefore is it not possible that at times the Psalmist expresses an attitude towards the Lord that I myself would not feel comfortable uttering to the Lord? (I hope that makes sense.)
2. If I apply the same exegetical hermetic to the Psalms as is with the rest of the bible, in only singing Psalms, am I not sometimes expressing things that were true for David, not exactly true for me? For example, when people were literally trying to kill David an take his physical life? When I sing these words, I cannot help but feel I am making comments that are not true of myself before the Lord.
3. Surely the People of God sang praises to his name prior to the book of Psalms being written.
4. We have Positive Commands all over the bible that indicate that singing to the Lord is an acceptable form of Worship (so long as we sing things founded on the truth of the bible). This seems to be true both before, during, and after the books of Psalms. Even within the book of Psalms, there are positive commands to make joyful noises to the Lord. I still am uncomfortable saying that EP is the only valid form of corporate singing on the Lord's Day.
5. Singing Imprecatory Psalms (this maybe ties a little in Point # 1 on Psalm Singing). One example Psalm 137:9 ("Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones.") At times I do not feel justified in singing or and calling for curses on people. Is praying imprecations on human foes unjustifiable for me? I know when this was stated in Psalm 137 it shows me that I often have a faulty view of of "true justice" according to the Lord. So I am not saying that I find fault with God in this verse, but I am simply expressing that I do not feel (myself) justified in singing this in a worshipful manner in my current context. All this to say, the context of the book of Psalms is slightly different (other types and shadows were still in play). Any help?
My current conclusion:
I am still plan continuing to study this and look forward to any help reasoning through the above points. TODAY, I still think it valid (and within RPW) to sing Psalms and spiritual songs (based on what the bible teaches). I also think we have positive commands for instrument use, but these should NOT be used to to create some performance, but rather to accompany the voice of the saints.
P.S. No matter your personal position feel free to chime in whether in agreement or disagreement. For those from the EP/AO position, please don't see me as one trying to poke at your position. I am trying to become an EP/AO guy, but I am not there yet. I must be convinced by the Word, which is why I am working through this position. I am looking for how you might explain the above. If you agree with some of my concerns and are an Inclusive Psalmist as I am currently, feel free to chime in.
P.P.S. Some of you EP/AO advocates may read my points and think “these are the most idiotic questions ever”. Sure they may be, but these are the honest questions arising in my mind as I try to understand.
I have been striving over the past months to wrap my head around the EP/AO position as being required by the RPW. I am humbly chewing on this and am just looking for some answers to the questions that have arisen as I have set my mind to this topic.
The majority of my strategy has been to incorporate Psalm singing (acapella) in our family worship sessions (1650 Psalter). Further, in my private study, I have been reading and praying through the Psalms. Side-note: I plan on switching to the Crown & Covenant Psalter (blue book) to help my Wife and young daughters with a more modern language, also my Church plans to add this Psalter to the pews in the future. The 1650 Scottish Psalter is still beautiful to me, but I find with those not used to English from 400 years ago, each song line of the Psalm needs an interpreter at times.
Below is what I have been chewing on. Please consider that I am not arguing against the position, but more accurately, I am wrestling with it to try and understand the Word and our Lord more clearly. Also, please read my tone as one of being respectful. My thoughts thus far in my journey (I still Highly Respect the EP/AO position):
Instruments
1. My understanding of the RPW is that we only worship God in ways commanded by him (putting it simply). Therefore in reading the Psalms there are many positive commands to worship the Lord with singing and with instruments. I understand what anti-instrument people will say: "The instruments were used in the temple worship and are now abrogated". But my questions remains....the RPW looks for positive commands, which it seems we do have for instruments (e.g., Psalm 98). Further, it seems to me that there is not a single verse in ALL of the bible that states that instruments are abrogated or are now forbidden in worshipping the Lord. To be clear instruments should not become idols or a performance.
2. On the surface at least, it seems to me to be inconsistent to say "instruments are abrogated but all 150 Psalm lyrics should be sung and none of the lyrics are abrogated". I am not advocating for Psalm Singing to be abrogated, but rather trying to work out the logic.
3. If one takes the position of EP and sings Psalm 98, but forbids instruments, it seems this is a contradiction (with more than 1 of the Psalms).
Singing Psalms Only
I fully believe Christians are required to Sing Psalms in Corporate Worship.
1. I have asked this question before, but I still wrestle with it. It is difficult for me to word, but I will try. All of scripture is True, but at times scripture truthfully documents sinful attitudes. Examples: Pharaoh's rebellion, Jonah's poor attitude, David's actions towards Uriah. Therefore is it not possible that at times the Psalmist expresses an attitude towards the Lord that I myself would not feel comfortable uttering to the Lord? (I hope that makes sense.)
2. If I apply the same exegetical hermetic to the Psalms as is with the rest of the bible, in only singing Psalms, am I not sometimes expressing things that were true for David, not exactly true for me? For example, when people were literally trying to kill David an take his physical life? When I sing these words, I cannot help but feel I am making comments that are not true of myself before the Lord.
3. Surely the People of God sang praises to his name prior to the book of Psalms being written.
4. We have Positive Commands all over the bible that indicate that singing to the Lord is an acceptable form of Worship (so long as we sing things founded on the truth of the bible). This seems to be true both before, during, and after the books of Psalms. Even within the book of Psalms, there are positive commands to make joyful noises to the Lord. I still am uncomfortable saying that EP is the only valid form of corporate singing on the Lord's Day.
5. Singing Imprecatory Psalms (this maybe ties a little in Point # 1 on Psalm Singing). One example Psalm 137:9 ("Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones.") At times I do not feel justified in singing or and calling for curses on people. Is praying imprecations on human foes unjustifiable for me? I know when this was stated in Psalm 137 it shows me that I often have a faulty view of of "true justice" according to the Lord. So I am not saying that I find fault with God in this verse, but I am simply expressing that I do not feel (myself) justified in singing this in a worshipful manner in my current context. All this to say, the context of the book of Psalms is slightly different (other types and shadows were still in play). Any help?
My current conclusion:
I am still plan continuing to study this and look forward to any help reasoning through the above points. TODAY, I still think it valid (and within RPW) to sing Psalms and spiritual songs (based on what the bible teaches). I also think we have positive commands for instrument use, but these should NOT be used to to create some performance, but rather to accompany the voice of the saints.
P.S. No matter your personal position feel free to chime in whether in agreement or disagreement. For those from the EP/AO position, please don't see me as one trying to poke at your position. I am trying to become an EP/AO guy, but I am not there yet. I must be convinced by the Word, which is why I am working through this position. I am looking for how you might explain the above. If you agree with some of my concerns and are an Inclusive Psalmist as I am currently, feel free to chime in.
P.P.S. Some of you EP/AO advocates may read my points and think “these are the most idiotic questions ever”. Sure they may be, but these are the honest questions arising in my mind as I try to understand.
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