Question for exclusive psalmody opponents

Paul does not specify one way or the other. So, I think it could include both OT Psalms and newer songs. The reason he told them to be "edifying" was because some in the church there were abusing their gifts for self-promotion rather than seeking to edify the church. The command for bring songs fits within that exhortation, and to me would imply at least some new content, just as the different forms of teaching mentioned there would as well. My point above is that there is no command or context in the text itself to restrict songs to the Book of Psalms.



That is the EP "default" argument. The problem is that there is no such command given in Scripture. If Paul had said something like "let the word of Christ dwell in you richly, teaching one another with the Book of Psalms in light of the new mysteries that have been revealed" then you could make that argument. But he gave no such command.

Again, this is not a regulative principle argument. Paul doesn’t need to limit us with restrictions as that’s the exact opposite from how the regulative principle works.
 
Lane answered sufficiently about the range of meaning. I think the word could certainly include the Psalms, but there is nothing in the context or anywhere else in the NT to indicate that only the Book of Psalms was in mind. In the context of 1 Cor 14, "psalmon" is included within the discussion of newer teaching or revelations used for the edification of the church. They serve the same function there as mentioned in Col. and Eph, to teach. With all the concern to do things "decently and in good order" in that chapter, Paul could have set things in order forever by specifying "the Book of Psalms".

The Westminster divines specified that the content of praise was to be the psalms; the Scottish church stopped singing the doxology; a psalter was commissioned with the interpretation of Col. 3 and Eph. 5 in the foreword; yet still you have people arguing that the Westminster standards are not EP. As far as I can tell, even if Paul said what you suggest, we’d be having this argument still.
 
It is all very well and good to note the range of meaning of the use of "psalm" in works outside of the Westminster assembly in puritan and other earlier works in general. My beef--and I've not been following this tandum of threads closely (more important stuff on my plate) so I don't know if this is what is being maintained on this thread (if so, Boo!)-- (can you tell I've been editing Rutherford; the em dash is your friend) is (and it is held with overwhelming conviction) with those who a la those who want to argue all sorts of laxities in the assembly's view like on creation importing later views, and say the Westminster Divines meant something other than what they meant. Dr. Needham, my friend Chad VanDixhoorn and Dr. Ward, who've both been very kind to me over the years helping on various publications and commendations of them, are wrong. The work of the assembly determines what they meant by psalm; and they, SURPRISE, meant the 150 Psalms. I've looked at this as much as anyone who has the time in it to express a legitimate opinion and I've maintained this since I came on this board in 2005. This of course has no bearing on what Paul meant; so I am not sure why the puritan use of the word is being brought up on this thread, but if we are speaking to what was meant at the Westminster assembly, I'll repeat what I've said before: It is a wrong approach to argue a broader meaning of the Westminster standards from outside the context of their work when it is sufficiently clear from within the work of the assembly itself what they meant. Committees like the assembly don't address issues they don't know about or do not need to address. They focus on the work they were assigned to do. Look at the work assigned and the work flow. They wanted uniformity of worship authorized by the solemn league & covenant across the kingdoms. This included a new Psalter for the kingdoms which the assembly spent a lot of time perfecting. To say that when they say psalms in WCF 21.5 they meant something broader flies in the face of the work they were actually doing, what they had already said in the directory for worship that preceded the confession, and the universal practice of psalm singing at that time, as well as the fact they focused on purging the psalter of customs prior to that time of including doxologies as parts of some psalms that don't appear in those psalms. This is essentially the same view as our former member here MW (Rev. Winzer) wrote in his review of Needham w.r.t. what the assembly meant by psalm. The assembly was not being prescient and leaving wiggle room for hymns later, an issue they never discussed and in practice none of them followed at the time (none of them; show me one).
 
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The reason he told them to be "edifying" was because some in the church there were abusing their gifts for self-promotion rather than seeking to edify the church

Sadly, some things never change.
Paul could also have plainly said, “baptize your infant children.”

Amen! Oh wait, that's not what you meant hahaha ;)
Again, this is not a regulative principle argument. Paul doesn’t need to limit us with restrictions as that’s the exact opposite from how the regulative principle works.

You misinterpreted Patrick's whole argument:

1) There is no explicit command to sing Psalms only

so ... since we need to look carefully at the words in Col. 3 and Eph. 5, let's do this with the accepted limits of the words Paul used from other places in Scripture and Greek documents.

It is disingenuous (unintentionally I am certain) to cast his argument as if the RPW allows for all unless specifically negated directly. That is not a fair representation in my opinion.
 
There is a major anachronism that occurs in this discussion. The assumption that EP was just as rigid in the Westminster days as it is in modern EP contexts. Keeping out Roman Catholic hymns is a bit different than excluding "Holy, Holy, Holy," "Great Is Thy Faithfulness," or "Rock of Ages." As these kinds of hymns did not exist at the time of the Westminster Assembly, it is anachronistic to say, a priori, that the Westminster divines would exclude them. This is not the same category as excluding doxologies from the Psalms. In the Psalter portion of a hymn-book, one would expect nothing but Psalms. I would hope that all of us on the PB would prefer the 150 Psalms to Roman Catholic hymns. According to the index in volume 4 of CVD's work, there is no explicit definition of psalms in the divines' discussion of chapter 21.5. The Westminster Annotations on Ephesians 5:19 do not limit "psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs" to the 150 Psalms. This is their comment: "But it seemeth most probable, that by Psalms he meaneth the Psalms of David set to the harp or psaltery, by Hymns, certain Ditties made upon special occasion; and by spiritual Songs, such as were not composed before-hand, and prick'd before them with musical notes, but such as men endited by an extraordinary gift."

The directory for public worship only gets as specific as saying "a psalm book." Psalm books sometimes had non-psalmic material in it. As I said before, if the Westminster divines only had what was eventually the 1650 Scottish Psalter in mind, then it proves too much.

Interestingly, Thomas Ford (a member of the Westminster Assembly) has this to say about the Psalms: "I am not so much against composing, as imposing; when men set up their own new songs, and shut out David's Psalms. Suppose it is lawful for men of spiritual minds to indict a Psalm, and then comment it to others, and sing it; yet, for argument's sake, it will not follow that therefore we must not sing the Psalms of David. Objection. But here again it is objected, that we conceive prayers, and therefore may as well conceive Psalms too, for praising God on occasion. Solution. I will not say it is unlawful to conceive and compose a Psalm upon occasion. But I say again there is no reason that our conceived Psalms should shut out David's" (see the McMahon version, p. 40). It is plain from this quotation that a member of the Westminster Assembly viewed the term "psalms" not exclusively, and even used it of non-inspired compositions. Winzer conveniently leaves out this portion of Ford's treatise in his treatment of Ford.

It is quite astonishing to me that Winzer accuses Needham of misrepresenting John Lightfoot, but then quotes the relevant portion of Lightfoot, which says precisely what Needham said it says. Needham says that Lightfoot understood by the three terms in Colossians 3:16 the Psalms, and other songs in Scripture. Winzer says Lightfoot was quoting someone he disagreed with, and that Lightfoot preferred a different interpretation. But when Winzer quotes Lightfoot, it is evident that Lightfoot agreed with the majority view when he says, "Others differ upon particulars, but agree upon this, that by these three are meant the Psalms of David, and other Songs in Scripture." Winzer even acknowledges that his reading of Lightfoot may have been wrong. He offers zero evidence that Lightfoot disagreed with the others he was quoting. Winzer is further unclear on whether Colossians 3:16 refers to public worship or not. For many of his arguments, he seems to assume that it is, and he argues the standard EP position on the passage. But when Needham quotes Poole's commentary (the section on Colossians 3:16 was written by the continuators), all of a sudden, Needham has to prove that Paul was talking about public worship.

I find it fascinating that Chris says that it is not proper to use sources outside the work of the Assembly if the Assembly's work is itself clear, but then gives a free pass to Winzer in this regard, who quotes plenty of sources that are outside the Assembly's direct work (confer his discussions of Ford, Burroughs, Rutherford, Edwards, Dickson, Calamy, Baynes and others). Given Winzer's distortion of Ford's position, I would not trust his analysis of others, either. If the Assembly's work was so clear, then why did Winzer need to quote sources outside the Assembly's work itself? As another example, take his quotation of Manton, which conveniently ignores this quotation on the previous page: "I confess we do not forbid other songs; if grave and pious, after good advice they may be received into the Church." He goes on to argue that the Psalms are the best songs and most fitting to be sung, which I would hope any IP'er could agree with. But Manton's position is hardly EP. Winzer quotes Cuthbert Sydenham (not Sydenham Cuthbert as in Winzer) also misleadingly. Sydenham was a Scripture song only advocate, not EP. He argues that the songs, hymns and spiritual songs are the Psalms of David "and such other which are found in Scripture penned by holy men upon special occasions" (McMahon, 156). The evidence even inside the Assembly's work is not nearly as clear to one who doesn't already hold EP. No doubt it seems overwhelming to one already convinced of the position. But many holes can be poked in the arguments. The fact is that the Westminster divines weren't NEARLY as strict as their erstwhile spiritual descendants, and it is anachronistic to assume that they were as strict as modern-day EP'ers.
 
There may have been some range of opinion perhaps among the Divines, as there were some who were not as strict on certain things in the assembly as others, there were Erastians and Independents of course. But I think this quote from William Romaine, who is a bit later, shows that today's EP "rigidness" is not a novelty:

“God has given us a large collection of psalms, has commanded them to be sung in the church, and has promised his blessing to the singing of them. No respect here must be paid to names or authorities, although they be the greatest on earth, because no one can dispense with the command of God, and no one can by his wit compose hymns to be compared with the psalms of God. I want [lack] a name for that man who should pretend that he could make better hymns than the Holy Ghost. His collection is large enough, it wants no addition. It is perfect, as its author, and not capable of any improvement. Why in such a case would any man in the world take it into his head to sit down to write hymns for the use of the church? It is just the same as if he was to write a new Bible, not only better than the old, but so much better that the old may be thrown aside. What a blasphemous attempt! And yet our hymn-mongers [singers], inadvertently I hope, have come very near to this blasphemy, for they shut out the Psalms, introduce their own verses into the church, sing them with great delight and as they fancy [imagine] with great profit, although the whole practice be in direct opposition to the command of God, and therefore cannot possibly be accompanied with the blessing of God.”

by William Romaine, An Essay on Psalmody, 1757,
 
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As these kinds of hymns did not exist at the time of the Westminster Assembly, it is anachronistic to say, a priori, that the Westminster divines would exclude them.
I think that Luther alone pretty easily proves this claim is not accurate (https://hymnary.org/person/Luther_Martin) unless you also claim "A mighty Fortress is our God" =/= "Holy, Holy, Holy," "Great Is Thy Faithfulness," or "Rock of Ages"? (the first English translation is reputed to be the one by Myles Coverdale in 1539)
 
There is a lot here, but I think the most important one is the ipsissima verba one. This is a common one and overthrows the entire foundation of our faith. The logical consequence of this is that one can read Calvin’s institutes in worship instead of Romans.
As I have pointed out, Mason, this is a fallacy of extension. My views most certainly do not imply what you say they do, and to say otherwise is a distortion of my position. The fact that you think I can endanger the entirety of our faith by my views on ipsissima verba with regard to EP appears to me to prove just how high you put the doctrine of EP. It overshadows any and all other mitigating factors in my view. Do you think you overstated this or not?
 
There may have been some range of opinion perhaps among the Divines, as there were some who were not as strict on certain things in the assembly as others, there were Erastians and Independents of course. But I think this quote from William Romaine, who is a bit later, shows that today's EP "rigidness" is not a novelty:



by William Romaine, An Essay on Psalmody, 1757,
So far, I have not seen a single Westminster divine as harsh or rigid as this.
 
well at any rate, the divines of the Church of Scotland that adopted the Westminster standards never attempted to introduce any songs outwith the book of Psalms into worship for several generations, and even when in 1781 the General Assembly passed an interim act permitted ministers who felt that some of the paraphrases revised by a committee were edifying to use them, there were still a majority of presbyteries that showed no support for introducing them alongside the psalm and a significant number who opposed them.
So far, I have not seen a single Westminster divine as harsh or rigid as this.
 
As I have pointed out, Mason, this is a fallacy of extension. My views most certainly do not imply what you say they do, and to say otherwise is a distortion of my position. The fact that you think I can endanger the entirety of our faith by my views on ipsissima verba with regard to EP appears to me to prove just how high you put the doctrine of EP. It overshadows any and all other mitigating factors in my view. Do you think you overstated this or not?

Certainly, it is a bit overstated to prove the point. You have no consistent limiting principle as far as I can tell that limits you to reading Romans instead of Calvin’s institutes.

I think it’s rather easy to prove this as well. When I was in the OPC, it was an element of worship to read uninspired creeds. If the limiting principle is merely ‘correct content’ and not inspiration, that makes sense.
 
From a history of the paraphrases and hymns revised by a committee of the general assembly of the Church of Scotland in the late 1700s,

“It is quite apparent from the action of the Assembly in thus prolonging the consideration of this Collection of Hymns that there was a majority in the church opposed to its introduction but that at the same time the minority was sufficiently strong to prevent the proposed paraphrases from being wholly rejected. For ten years the subject had been before the church (notice how it hadn’t been attempted at all before 1750s) but the conservative spirit had succeeded in keeping it out of public worship.”

Source: https://electricscotland.com/bible/The_Scottish_Paraphrases.pdf
 
Some further indication that todays attitude is no novelty, our Presbyterian forbears in Scotland following in the footsteps of the flock before them, at the free church general assembly of 1872, in order to preserve their consistent practice from earlier decades, argued thus,

Hugh Martin said in the 1872 Free Church Assembly that “the question is not whether the dispensation under which we now live is better and brighter than that which preceded it, but whether, under this better and brighter dispensation, there is any security for better and brighter hymns than the Psalms of David, and whether there is a promise given to any man, or any body of men, of a richer unction of the Spirit – and not a richer unction only, but a specifically inspiring action of the Spirit – for the purpose of composing hymns for the public worship of God in the Church than was given to him of whom it is written that in his blessed swan song he spoke as follows: ‘David, the son of Jesse said, and the man who was raised up on high, the anointed of the God of Jacob, and the sweet psalmist of Israel, said, The Spirit of the Lord spake by me, and His word was in my tongue’. Is there any modern hymnologist in circumstances to say that? . . . The question is not whether we are to rise above the Old Testament dispensation, but whether we are, by the help of uninspired hymnologists, to arise above the Spirit and Word of God in the mouth of ‘David . . . the man who was raised up on high.'”

John Kennedy, in the same Assembly, asked: “What view of God’s character is not unfolded in the Psalms? What aspect of His providence is not presented in them? What special dealing with His Church, individually or collectively, is not celebrated? What phase of spiritual feeling, from the deepest groan of agony and hopelessness to the highest ecstasy of triumphant joy is not expressed? And have we not in the Psalms the grand facts of redemption in the historic form?” Referring to those who thought that hymns were needed for appropriate response to the “further light” of the New Testament, he said: “Have you that further light? If so, bring it to the Psalms, and use it as a help to sing them with the understanding; and, the more you do so, I venture to assure you that you will meet with depths which you cannot sound and heights of attainment in faith and feeling which you are weak to climb.”

Anyone studying the commentators on the Ephesian and Colossian passages will notice that those who find in them uninspired hymns and scripture songs other than the Psalms use such words as “seem”, “might” and “may” as they present their conjectural interpretations, whereas there is no doubt that the Book of Psalms includes each category of praise described there. Paul’s original readers, with their Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, knew that well. Apart from these misused texts, Mr Murray presents no scriptural warrant for uninspired materials of praise.”

Source: https://www.fpchurch.org.uk/publica...mns-in-public-worship-rev-h-m-cartwright-554/
 
There is a major anachronism that occurs in this discussion. The assumption that EP was just as rigid in the Westminster days as it is in modern EP contexts. Keeping out Roman Catholic hymns is a bit different than excluding "Holy, Holy, Holy," "Great Is Thy Faithfulness," or "Rock of Ages." As these kinds of hymns did not exist at the time of the Westminster Assembly, it is anachronistic to say, a priori, that the Westminster divines would exclude them. This is not the same category as excluding doxologies from the Psalms. In the Psalter portion of a hymn-book, one would expect nothing but Psalms. I would hope that all of us on the PB would prefer the 150 Psalms to Roman Catholic hymns. According to the index in volume 4 of CVD's work, there is no explicit definition of psalms in the divines' discussion of chapter 21.5. The Westminster Annotations on Ephesians 5:19 do not limit "psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs" to the 150 Psalms. This is their comment: "But it seemeth most probable, that by Psalms he meaneth the Psalms of David set to the harp or psaltery, by Hymns, certain Ditties made upon special occasion; and by spiritual Songs, such as were not composed before-hand, and prick'd before them with musical notes, but such as men endited by an extraordinary gift."

The directory for public worship only gets as specific as saying "a psalm book." Psalm books sometimes had non-psalmic material in it. As I said before, if the Westminster divines only had what was eventually the 1650 Scottish Psalter in mind, then it proves too much.

Interestingly, Thomas Ford (a member of the Westminster Assembly) has this to say about the Psalms: "I am not so much against composing, as imposing; when men set up their own new songs, and shut out David's Psalms. Suppose it is lawful for men of spiritual minds to indict a Psalm, and then comment it to others, and sing it; yet, for argument's sake, it will not follow that therefore we must not sing the Psalms of David. Objection. But here again it is objected, that we conceive prayers, and therefore may as well conceive Psalms too, for praising God on occasion. Solution. I will not say it is unlawful to conceive and compose a Psalm upon occasion. But I say again there is no reason that our conceived Psalms should shut out David's" (see the McMahon version, p. 40). It is plain from this quotation that a member of the Westminster Assembly viewed the term "psalms" not exclusively, and even used it of non-inspired compositions. Winzer conveniently leaves out this portion of Ford's treatise in his treatment of Ford.

It is quite astonishing to me that Winzer accuses Needham of misrepresenting John Lightfoot, but then quotes the relevant portion of Lightfoot, which says precisely what Needham said it says. Needham says that Lightfoot understood by the three terms in Colossians 3:16 the Psalms, and other songs in Scripture. Winzer says Lightfoot was quoting someone he disagreed with, and that Lightfoot preferred a different interpretation. But when Winzer quotes Lightfoot, it is evident that Lightfoot agreed with the majority view when he says, "Others differ upon particulars, but agree upon this, that by these three are meant the Psalms of David, and other Songs in Scripture." Winzer even acknowledges that his reading of Lightfoot may have been wrong. He offers zero evidence that Lightfoot disagreed with the others he was quoting. Winzer is further unclear on whether Colossians 3:16 refers to public worship or not. For many of his arguments, he seems to assume that it is, and he argues the standard EP position on the passage. But when Needham quotes Poole's commentary (the section on Colossians 3:16 was written by the continuators), all of a sudden, Needham has to prove that Paul was talking about public worship.

I find it fascinating that Chris says that it is not proper to use sources outside the work of the Assembly if the Assembly's work is itself clear, but then gives a free pass to Winzer in this regard, who quotes plenty of sources that are outside the Assembly's direct work (confer his discussions of Ford, Burroughs, Rutherford, Edwards, Dickson, Calamy, Baynes and others). Given Winzer's distortion of Ford's position, I would not trust his analysis of others, either. If the Assembly's work was so clear, then why did Winzer need to quote sources outside the Assembly's work itself? As another example, take his quotation of Manton, which conveniently ignores this quotation on the previous page: "I confess we do not forbid other songs; if grave and pious, after good advice they may be received into the Church." He goes on to argue that the Psalms are the best songs and most fitting to be sung, which I would hope any IP'er could agree with. But Manton's position is hardly EP. Winzer quotes Cuthbert Sydenham (not Sydenham Cuthbert as in Winzer) also misleadingly. Sydenham was a Scripture song only advocate, not EP. He argues that the songs, hymns and spiritual songs are the Psalms of David "and such other which are found in Scripture penned by holy men upon special occasions" (McMahon, 156). The evidence even inside the Assembly's work is not nearly as clear to one who doesn't already hold EP. No doubt it seems overwhelming to one already convinced of the position. But many holes can be poked in the arguments. The fact is that the Westminster divines weren't NEARLY as strict as their erstwhile spiritual descendants, and it is anachronistic to assume that they were as strict as modern-day EP'ers.
Hi brother, I think you may be mistaken about what these "doxologies" were. They were what we would call uninspired hymns. They were contained in a separate section of the psalter, and they were uninspired songs, and there were usually a relatively small number of them. The assembly intended to exclude them, as evidenced by their production of the 1650 psalter, which is the only psalter of the day that did not include these uninspired hymns.
Here is an example of one such Psalter from 1652, the Sternhold Psalter. (the metric psalms are towards the end of the scan, after the New Testament). I have about ten other examples from the 17th century that follow the same pattern.
As such, I don't think it's correct to say uninspired hymns did not exist yet. They did exist, they were printed in psalters, and the assembly had the intention of producing a psalter that excluded them.
 
Certainly, it is a bit overstated to prove the point. You have no consistent limiting principle as far as I can tell that limits you to reading Romans instead of Calvin’s institutes.

I think it’s rather easy to prove this as well. When I was in the OPC, it was an element of worship to read uninspired creeds. If the limiting principle is merely ‘correct content’ and not inspiration, that makes sense.
Mason, then you don't mind if I overstate things a bit in response, presumably? You overthrow the faith by elevating EP to a level of importance it should never have. You believe that all others who do not hold to EP are heretics because they overthrow the faith. You therefore believe I am headed to Hell, and so is anyone else who is not EP. That's only a bit overstated, correct, to prove the point?

If you really knew what I believe, you would know that I firmly believe Scripture itself defines what preaching is: reading the text, and giving the sense (as in Ezra). You would also know that the Second Helvetic Confession says that the preaching of the Word of God IS the Word of God. You would also know that the distinction between creeds and Scripture is the distinction between "normed norm" and "norming norm." But also that Scripture itself commands us to confess our faith. This should be done in a way that the church agrees upon, not, in other words, on the basis of a single person's theology (the fact that you see no difference between the confessions of the church and Calvin's Institutes proves you do not understand the point). I cannot believe you think your level of overstatement is justified. At a stroke, all churches in the OPC, PCA, ARP, and elsewhere that believe the faith should be confessed in worship are undermining the entire faith. I am breathless from your judgmentalism.
 
Alex, your quotations are completely irrelevant to the discussion, because I never claimed (and never would) that the strict view of EP has no historical precedent. I have said that the view of the Westminster divines is not that strict. You can quote all the authors you want to from 1700 and later, and they are therefore completely irrelevant to the discussion.
 
So far, I have not seen a single Westminster divine as harsh or rigid as this.
As, if I recall, youve quoted Manton, here is something from him, as representing an attitude of Westminster, pointed out by the late Rev Hugh Cartwright in the article I linked in my previous post, showing that Manton was not very far off from Romaine, if a slightly more diplomatic:

Selective quotations. In his use of quotations Mr Murray is unfairly selective. For example, to support his claim that Thomas Manton’s use of Psalms was due to preference rather than principle, he quotes two sentences from Manton to the effect that other songs were not forbidden, based on a claim made by Tertullian that in early times hymns were sung as well as Scripture Psalms. But he does not refer to the extensive comment of Manton in the same context supporting his assertion that “Scripture Psalms not only may be sung, but are fittest to be used in the Church, as being indited by an infallible and unerring Spirit, and are of a more diffusive and unlimited concernment than the private dictates of any particular person or spirit in the Church. It is impossible any should be of such a large heart as the penmen of the Word, to whom God vouchsafed such a public, high and infallible conduct; and therefore their excellent composures and addresses to God being recorded and consigned to the use of the Church for ever, it seemeth a wonderful arrogance and presumption in any to pretend to make better, or that their private and rash effusions will be more edifying.”
 
Alex, your quotations are completely irrelevant to the discussion, because I never claimed (and never would) that the strict view of EP has no historical precedent. I have said that the view of the Westminster divines is not that strict. You can quote all the authors you want to from 1700 and later, and they are therefore completely irrelevant to the discussion.
See my very last post re Manton
 
As, if I recall, youve quoted Manton, here is something from him, as representing an attitude of Westminster, pointed out by the late Rev Hugh Cartwright in the article I linked in my previous post, showing that Manton was not very far off from Romaine, if a slightly more diplomatic:
Alex, as I was assuming already the quotation use of it that is in Winzer's article, and as I already noted in previous posts the substance of what you quoted, your accusation of my misquotation is wide of the mark. You are behind in the discussion, and are not contributing anything positive to it, so far.
 
Well
Alex, as I was assuming already the quotation use of it that is in Winzer's article, and as I already noted in previous posts the substance of what you quoted, your accusation of my misquotation is wide of the mark. You are behind in the discussion, and are not contributing anything positive to it, so far.

Well given that quote, and I do apologise if I’ve overlooked your discussion of it, I think it’s not very fair to say that none of the divines were very strict, because, as I say, Manton was pretty near in line with sentiments like Romaine’s
 
Well


Well given that quote, and I do apologise if I’ve overlooked your discussion of it, I think it’s not very fair to say that none of the divines were very strict, because, as I say, Manton was pretty near in line with sentiments like Romaine’s
I don't think you are reading very carefully if you think Manton's position is nearly in line with Romaine. Where is Manton's rhetoric against the hymnists? Absent. Where is Manton calling hymnists blasphemous? Manton explicitly says that the sober hymns received into the church are acceptable. Romaine says they are blasphemous. Not quite in line.
 
I agree he was more diplomatic. But he says,

“Scripture Psalms not only may be sung, but are fittest to be used in the Church”

Though not expressed as strongly as Romaine, this in practice means it’s more fit to use psalms than other songs, so you end up practically with strict EP.

“it seemeth a wonderful arrogance and presumption in any to pretend to make better, or that their private and rash effusions will be more edifying.”

Granted he doesn’t call it blasphemous, as I say, he’s less inflammatory in his language, and yet still casts a stern censure on any who would find it more edifying to sing something else instead of Psalm in church.

As C Coldwell has pointed out, their views, and their practice, boils down to strict EP.
 
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Mason, then you don't mind if I overstate things a bit in response, presumably? You overthrow the faith by elevating EP to a level of importance it should never have. You believe that all others who do not hold to EP are heretics because they overthrow the faith. You therefore believe I am headed to Hell, and so is anyone else who is not EP. That's only a bit overstated, correct, to prove the point?

If you really knew what I believe, you would know that I firmly believe Scripture itself defines what preaching is: reading the text, and giving the sense (as in Ezra). You would also know that the Second Helvetic Confession says that the preaching of the Word of God IS the Word of God. You would also know that the distinction between creeds and Scripture is the distinction between "normed norm" and "norming norm." But also that Scripture itself commands us to confess our faith. This should be done in a way that the church agrees upon, not, in other words, on the basis of a single person's theology (the fact that you see no difference between the confessions of the church and Calvin's Institutes proves you do not understand the point). I cannot believe you think your level of overstatement is justified. At a stroke, all churches in the OPC, PCA, ARP, and elsewhere that believe the faith should be confessed in worship are undermining the entire faith. I am breathless from your judgmentalism.

Lane, I admitted to overstating things and please forgive me for that. I think you are wrong, and will give an account for binding people’s consciences to sing uninspired praise, but I don’t think you have overthrown the foundation of the faith. I think you’re incredibly inconsistent, and praise God for that. We all shall be inconsistent this side of glory. Blessings, and wish no ill.
 
I would agree with Zach, and further find the Scriptures, especially the Psalms themselves, speaking to "sing a new song" unto the Lord (e.g. Psalm 33:1-3, Psalm 96:1, Psalm 98:1, Isaiah 42:10), and at liberty to make use of God's gifts of instrumentation to us, as we are "filled with the Spirit" and make melody unto Him (Ephesians 5:18-19). I understand that EP advocates argue these commands in the Old Testament are not applicable under the new covenant but I find this unconvincing. I see church history as agreeing with the singing of hymns and spiritual songs (not Psalms exclusively) in this way. Whilst I don't claim these hymns and songs to be on par with Scripture, I do believe in inspired praise in this sense, similar to how one may be moved by the Spirit in prayer using his or her own language.
I know some may disagree on this, most would say that the regulative principle applies to the worship service on Sunday. This wouldn't forbid anybody from being creative outside of Sunday worship. Sunday is worship to the LORD as he prescribes.

About your comment on Church History. The first four centuries forbade the singing of anything outside the scripture itself. Primarily people would sing the Psalms, and in some cases, they would sing songs found in other places. However, they never deviated from the scriptures until Arius in the fourth century AD. Arius was the first recorded to create man-made music about God, and the song was anti-trinitarian.
 
About your comment on Church History. The first four centuries forbade the singing of anything outside the scripture itself. Primarily people would sing the Psalms, and in some cases, they would sing songs found in other places. However, they never deviated from the scriptures until Arius in the fourth century AD. Arius was the first recorded to create man-made music about God, and the song was anti-trinitarian.

Is this really true and provable from evidence, though? I am not convinced.

The Phos Hilaron seems to be from circa 200 AD.

Sub tuum praesidium seems to be from the 200's AD as well.

Likewise, Te Deum is from ancient times.
 
I know some may disagree on this, most would say that the regulative principle applies to the worship service on Sunday. This wouldn't forbid anybody from being creative outside of Sunday worship. Sunday is worship to the LORD as he prescribes.
How do the arguments for the regulative principle not apply to all worship?
 
How do the arguments for the regulative principle not apply to all worship?

All of the things commanded to be done in corporate worship, seem to me to only be rightly done in corporate worship.
1. Teaching / preaching of the Word, by a person duly gifted and called.
2. Corporate singing of psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs.
3. Corporate prayer, done by a person duly gifted and called.
4. Administration of the sacraments, by a person duly gifted and called.

There are only two logical conclusions to this that I can see:
1. Worship of any kind outside of the normal corporate meetings of the church are forbidden.
2. The RPW only applies to the normal corporate meetings of the church.
 
All of the things commanded to be done in corporate worship, seem to me to only be rightly done in corporate worship.
1. Teaching / preaching of the Word, by a person duly gifted and called.
2. Corporate singing of psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs.
3. Corporate prayer, done by a person duly gifted and called.
4. Administration of the sacraments, by a person duly gifted and called.

There are only two logical conclusions to this that I can see:
1. Worship of any kind outside of the normal corporate meetings of the church are forbidden.
2. The RPW only applies to the normal corporate meetings of the church.

Does family worship and worship in private violate the second commandment then?*

*I am not talking of a father dispensing the sacraments in his house. I am speaking of the kind of thing the Westminster divines and Joel Beeke advocate.
 
This article from the Banner of Truth argues against several pro-EP claims.
Since he has been mentioned here..
Manton explicitly says that the sober hymns received into the church are acceptable.
..Thomas Manton is quoted in the linked article (supposedly his come from his comments on Ephesians 5:13).

Several other articles I found online similarly arguing against EP referenced Puritan exegetes and those who followed. Although when it comes to Westminster Divines especially, many EP proponents argue that comments in favour of singing non-Psalms relate to private worship as opposed to corporate. Jonathan Edwards’ comments appear to be well liked for non-EP’ers. E.g. https://fpcurrent.com/faithful-praise-through-songs-and-hymns/
 
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