John,
I realize that the language is unfamiliar, but that unfamiliarity is due to historical reasons that I hope to try to explain in a forthcoming work. That unfamiliarity doesn't make them speculative.
Is the Creator/creature distinction speculative?
As to philosophical language, it isn't philosophical. It is
theological language. Theologians must be able to use technical terms or there will be no such thing as theology! If we were doing botany, no one would question the validity of technical terms. Why are they invalid for theology? Are we restricted only to biblical language? That was the Socinian argument and, of course, we know where that got us! (they denied the Trinity, among other things, all the while claiming only to be following the Bible).
I highly recommend this essay:
Willem J. van Asselt, "The Fundamental Meaning of Theology: Archetypal and Ectypal Theology in Seventeenth-Century Reformed Thought,"
Westminster Theological Journal 64 (2003): 319-35.
It is available via inter-library loan from most public libraries.
As to archetypal and ectypal theology being opposites, I'm not sure what you mean. Can you explain?
If opposites mean "contradictory," I would say "no." They are analogues. Think of two parallel lines that never intersect. Are the lines opposites? No. Is the bottom line identical to the top? No. The bottom line is a reflection of the top. The bottom line is not the top and it is true as far as it goes, but given that the bottom line is not the top, it is an imperfect reflection of the top.
Consider the divine attributes. We speak of "attributes" but because we are capable only of ectypal theology we must do so. The finite is not capable of the infinite. We know from Scripture that, in God, there are not "attributes." God is holy, just, merciful, infinite, immense etc. All his mercy is immense and all his justice is merciful. We must speak of "attributes" in order to speak of him at all and yet, in so doing, we've said something that we know isn't true absolutely, but there's no other way (at least we haven't found it yet) to speak about God.
The same is true of the biblical anthropomorphisms. We know that God does not have an ear, yet he is revealed as having an ear because it is a way of helping us to think about and understand that God is cognizant of us and "hears" us, as it were. Strictly speaking, there is a certain degree of falsehood in the words: "God's ear," yet revelation gives us warrant for speaking thus, so long as we recognize the sort of speech we are using.
The truth is we cannot comprehend what it means for God "to hear." He hears, as it were, in a way that utterly transcends our ability to understand.
So, when Junius and Polanus et al spoke of theologia archetypa et ectypa, they were speaking of infinite theology and accommodated theology. God understands our theology completely, better than we do or ever shall, but God being who and what he is, we can never know his theology.
The Scripture pictures the moral and ontological transcendence of God by describing him as a "consuming fire" (Deut 4:24; Heb 12:29). If God revealed himself to us as he is, he would consume us. We're not able to see his face and live (Exod 33:20). These sorts of places in Scripture witness to the very distinguish at stake in the archetypal/ectypal distinction.
rsc
Dr. Clark:
I just don't agree. I can answer why I consider it speculative, but don't think that this is the intent of this thread. In this thread I merely assert that I consider it speculative, not authoritative; and I question some of the ways that the terms are used. I believe that questioning the your concluding remark is sufficient for this: is it indeed true that introducing philosphical or technical terminology does not necessarily make it speculative?
But I have a question instead: would you consider the Archtype to be in any way opposite to the Echtype? That is, is the way God knows in some way (at least one way) opposite to the way man knows?