John The Baptist
Puritan Board Sophomore
The structure of the passage. Not saying it is definitively a hymn, but possible, even likely. 2:5-11.What hymn? What makes it a hymn? How do you know its a hymn?
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The structure of the passage. Not saying it is definitively a hymn, but possible, even likely. 2:5-11.What hymn? What makes it a hymn? How do you know its a hymn?
Even if it was, that still wouldn't be warrant to use in the public worship of God. And then, even if you're Inspired Praise Only, it still wouldn't warrant uninspired praise in God's worship. As formerly mentioned, and it's worth repeating, neither of these positions can ever give birth to the uninspired praise position. I often see this argument on internet blogs as a way to try to wedge open the door to 'What a friend we have in Jesus' etc. It's really just an irrelevant talking point, to be blunt.The structure of the passage. Not saying it is definitively a hymn, but possible, even likely. 2:5-11.
I'm no linguist, but I have seen those who point out that verses 6-11 are written in couplets, and that there are also other poetic/hymnic features such as alliteration, parallelism, meter and chiasm present. A Google search will bring up some info. In any case, that understanding is not something simply pulled out of thin air or merely wishful thinking.Folks talk about this stuff, write about this stuff. But evidence is pretty much non-existant. Dare I say it..."Wishful thinking/"
The presence of some poetic features doesn't make a text a song. You could look at innumerable passages in OT Wisdom and prophetic literature, etc. for examples. To claim that such NT texts are hymn fragments is pure speculation.I'm no linguist, but I have seen those who point out that verses 6-11 are written in couplets, and that there are also other poetic/hymnic features such as alliteration, parallelism, meter and chiasm present. A Google search will bring up some info. In any case, that understanding is not something simply pulled out of thin air or merely wishful thinking.
My point is that the hymn understanding has a linguistic basis, with some scholars even thinking it likely, so to try and dismiss it as merely wishful thinking is to be ignorant or at best dismissive of certain pertinent facts.The presence of some poetic features doesn't make a text a song. You could look at innumerable passages in OT Wisdom and prophetic literature, etc. for examples. To claim that such NT texts are hymn fragments is pure speculation.
Given that such texts are often used as axiomatic or authoritative statements of doctrine, I think it's more likely that they are creeds than hymns.
Can’t read Greek (yet, God willing), just going with what I’ve heard.What portion of the structure of Philippians 2 makes you think its a hymn. I have attached Codex Sinaiticus a very early manuscript - what structurally marks it out as a hymn? If its not the structure, or puncutation (which btw. there is none!) , then it must be the wording. What about the wording? Vocabulary etc. marks it out as a hymn....even "probably"?
Folks talk about this stuff, write about this stuff. But evidence is pretty much non-existant. Dare I say it..."Wishful thinking/"
My thinking was that if it is a hymn, then there was a hymn in circulation which was uninspired, possibly being used in worship, and Paul shows his approval of it. Of course, it’s speculation. Just wanted to know how some take this possibility into their thinking.Even if it was, that still wouldn't be warrant to use in the public worship of God. And then, even if you're Inspired Praise Only, it still wouldn't warrant uninspired praise in God's worship. As formerly mentioned, and it's worth repeating, neither of these positions can ever give birth to the uninspired praise position. I often see this argument on internet blogs as a way to try to wedge open the door to 'What a friend we have in Jesus' etc. It's really just an irrelevant talking point, to be blunt.
I can get behind this. The posts I’ve already read have established that there is a difference between creeds and song in worship, explaining why one need not be inspired (creed), while the other must (song/psalm).The presence of some poetic features doesn't make a text a song. You could look at innumerable passages in OT Wisdom and prophetic literature, etc. for examples. To claim that such NT texts are hymn fragments is pure speculation.
Given that such texts are often used as axiomatic or authoritative statements of doctrine, I think it's more likely that they are creeds than hymns.
My apologies, I was simply wondering the rationale of the position, if indeed Philippians 2 is a hymn. I’m not sure this was explained, but I retreat. Thanks all for your explanations.Can we please have a moratorium on this topic? There is a veritable library's worth of threads beating this dead horse into glue. Folks need to learn to use the forum search function.
It's a far cry from the Canticle to "Shine Jesus Shine." Why even bring that in?I would say that Song of Songs is not a spiritual song in the sense in which the Apostle Paul means it to be understood. Ditto any other songs in Scripture. However if someone wants to sing Song of Songs in worship I might well tolerate that. But if some one wants to sing "Shine Jesus Shine" as being a spiritual song I want them to explain what they mean by spiritiual and give a solid biblical argument for it. In addition I would want them to explain how such a song is the "word of Christ".
I have nothing to say about points 1-6; I'll be content if you answer my nitpicking on this one issue.I addressed that in post #12. Since you are interested in nitpicking this one point, do you have any other thoughts on points 1-6 I laid out in my original post? Inspired praise only still doesn't align with composition of uninspired praise in God's worship; so either position would not give warrant to the latter.
Brother, I already gave my reasons in an answer in #17 primarily, alongside the other aforementioned posts. The problem is not that I didn't give an answer, the problem is your discontentment with the answer. Your question presumes Psalms, Hymns, and Spiritual songs are 3 different categories, of which we do not agree, nor did the prefatory material to the 1650 Psalter, which was signed by many, and received its stamp of approval from the Westminster Assembly.I have nothing to say about points 1-6; I'll be content if you answer my nitpicking on this one issue.
Ben you know fine well that we who are Exclusive Psalm singers believe that what Paul means in the relevant texts is that all three terms are referring to the psalms. Every verse in Scripture has a context and singular meaning, and I do not believe that Paul means us to understand "spiritual song" as being any song in Scripture but only those in the psalms. That is not an uncommon position. So I would be glad if you would read both Paul and my words in the context in which they are written. I think you know all that given your many, many interactions on this subject in the past.Do you believe the Song of Solomon is NOT the word of Christ?
Really?I have never had anyone say their conscience would trouble them to sing Psalms instead of hymns.
Friend, people may find benefit in discussing these questions and seeing for themselves the strengths and weaknesses of a position and its conformity to scripture.
That may be true. But I did not in any way mention the issue of the name "Jesus" not being in the Psalms. Yes, I have had people bring that up, but after a brief conversation and showing them that Christ ( מָשִׁיחַ / messiah) is specifically mentioned multiple times (whether we translate it that way or not - Psalm 2 comes to mind: "The kings of the earth band themselves, and the Princes are assembled together against the Lord, and against his Christ." v.2, Geneva Bible; see also Psalms 18, 20, 28, 84, 89, 105, 132), along with all the other arguments you already know, they admit that their conscience would not trouble them to sing Psalms instead of hymns, your incredulity aside. I've never understood the "but Jesus isn't mentioned in the Psalms" argument from those who sing uninspired hymns that don't all mention Christ...Really?
That amazes me. I honestly could not count the number of sincere believers who have made it clear that they cannot - in good conscience - sing exclusively songs that do not name Jesus. (I know all the arguments that He is named in the Psalms. I am simply stating that I find it incredulous to have never encountered anyone who would say that He is not explicitly named therein.)
Would that be an accurate translation of the original Hebrew? Sounds like it would be taking interpretative latitude with translating the Psalm, which would put it into the category of a paraphrase and thus impermissible from an EP perspective. This is despite the fact that I think that interpretation is right, the Psalm is about Christ, but changing the text to explicitly read our interpretation is wrong.EP’ers. If a singing of Psalm 72 was modified to replace instances of He or His, to refer to Christ directly, is it permissible or not? If impermissible, what is the principle
I get that. At the same time, I haven’t seen anything asked or said in this thread that hasn’t been asked or said—sometimes literally verbatim—in dozens of past threads.Friend, people may find benefit in discussing these questions and seeing for themselves the strengths and weaknesses of a position and its conformity to scripture.
Both positions are being set forth in this thread.Edit: typically the people who insist upon not creating new threads are against the positions set forth (EP, abstaining from holy days, etc.) — the church is in a state of declension, and I think it is important to discuss them repeatedly now more than ever.
So your argument is not from logic, but from tradition. That's fine.Brother, I already gave my reasons in an answer in #17 primarily, alongside the other aforementioned posts. The problem is not that I didn't give an answer, the problem is your discontentment with the answer. Your question presumes Psalms, Hymns, and Spiritual songs are 3 different categories, of which we do not agree, nor did the prefatory material to the 1650 Psalter, which was signed by many, and received its stamp of approval from the Westminster Assembly.
"..to us David’s Psalms seem plainly intended by those terms of “psalms and hymns and spiritual songs,” which the apostle useth (Eph. 5:19; Col. 3:16)."
It’s helpful to remember that Christ = messiah/anointed and Jesus = salvation, so he is sung about directly throughout the Psalms. Psalm 2 immediately in the Psalter sets up the reality of everything else to follow: “The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD and against his anointed…”EP’ers. If a singing of Psalm 72 was modified to replace instances of He or His, to refer to Christ directly, is it permissible or not? If impermissible, what is the principle
In your perspective, my argument is from tradition, sure, but I provided a slew of reasons as did others, and you were not satisfied with the answers. Hezekiah commanded the people of Israel to sing the Psalms of David in public worship, but never the song of Solomon, though he had both in hand. The fact is it's never authorized in the public worship of God.So your argument is not from logic, but from tradition. That's fine.
I'm simply trying to understand why a God-inspired spiritual song is banned in your scheme of things, when spiritual songs are commanded.
Maybe it all rests on what Paul meant when he named three types of songs to sing. I have seen nothing in all these threads that shows that Paul meant to limit his statement to the Psalter. It seems mostly a matter of opinion among good men whether his words warrant such limit.
But this "only book that contains songs" thing just seems like a prevarication. There is no reason from Scripture to limit singing because of that.
But why is it excluded? Because if it is, the EP position falls apart? There's a lot of talk about the burden of proof falling on those who would sing uninspired stuff. Fine, let them prove that. But here I believe the burden of proof must rest on the one who would exclude an inspired Spiritual Song, in a book containing no other material (again, the mind boggles at this proviso of Mr. Hess), which is the word of Christ, given that it meets all the criteria Paul spells out in the verses being applied to.Ben you know fine well that we who are Exclusive Psalm singers believe that what Paul means in the relevant texts is that all three terms are referring to the psalms. Every verse in Scripture has a context and singular meaning, and I do not believe that Paul means us to understand "spiritual song" as being any song in Scripture but only those in the psalms. That is not an uncommon position. So I would be glad if you would read both Paul and my words in the context in which they are written. I think you know all that given your many, many interactions on this subject in the past.
So just to be plain, in case I wasn't plain enough....the Song of Songs is the Word of Christ, but it is not one of the spiritual songs that Paul is describing in Col 3:16.
You are free to disagree with that. You are not free to misinterpret my words.
Your profile indicates you're baptist, so I presume your congregation sings uninspired praise, no? Where do you get the warrant for that? I have less of an issue with an inspired praise only position, but you aren't actually of that persuasion, are you? My real grub is with points 1 & 6 in my original post, of which you haven't engaged at all.Maybe it all rests on what Paul meant when he named three types of songs to sing. I have seen nothing in all these threads that shows that Paul meant to limit his statement to the Psalter. It seems mostly a matter of opinion among good men whether his words warrant such limit.