Argument against Exclusive Psalmody from the Psalms

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This is one of the most unpleasant threads I have ever read through on the PB. Endless assertions, insubstantial arguments, and more than one “Nice try.”

Clearly, the OP is not intended to promote any substantial discussion. I have not forgotten that this started (in another, now closed, thread) with the accusation that Exclusive Psalmody is a “doctrine of Satan.”

If there are any members who are willing to have a real conversation on this topic, if they are genuinely curious about EP, or if they want to work out some knots they have with the doctrine, then I might suggest they take those questions to a new thread.
Way to jump in and contribute! I don't think there is any good way to show EP is error without folks getting spun up from both sides. I have tried to learn from guidance of the mods and be as charitable as I can.

Seriously, this is an approach I have not seen before concerning the error of EP and I believe I am familiar with them all. I'd be interested in seeing your take on countering the OP premises and conclusions. Iron sharpens iron and all...
 
without revealing my own view in this but for the sake of understanding OP more,

OP, how would you argue against a baptist who says there is no clear mention of infant baptism?

This will help us understand your concept of mentions in formulating a doctrine
 
Brother, if you have not sown tears singing Psalm 22...

I'm going to have to agree with Joshua above, this is absolute clownery.


His resurrection - Ps. 16
I really, really take exception to these "clownery" comments, pure ad hominum. Particularly when no one has managed to falsify the premises of the OP or show non sequitur. Feels like sour grapes and red herrings.
 
Way to jump in and contribute! I don't think there is any good way to show EP is error without folks getting spun up from both sides.
That’s not true. I’ve seen plenty of level-headed discussions here. The problem is the manner in which you are conducting your part of the discussion.
I'd be interested in seeing your take on countering the OP premises and conclusions. Iron sharpens iron and all...
Normally, I’d be happy to contribute, even though I am hardly an authority on the subject. I usually find these discussions helpful and stimulating. But I do not think this particular thread is worth any of my time. It has become too chaotic, since the focus of the OP is not on learning, but in catching others in a supposed error.

Again, it would be better for anyone with sincere questions to look up past threads or perhaps start a new one.
 
without revealing my own view in this but for the sake of understanding OP more,

OP, how would you argue against a baptist who says there is no clear mention of infant baptism?

This will help us understand your concept of mentions in formulating a doctrine
I am not quite sure what you are asking and hoping I don't drive us off-topic with this but here is a post I did at a brother's request to interact on reformed covenant vs new covenant theology.
 
Friend, the issue that almost everyone is pointing out to you is that your posts here are filled with unsupported assertions and non-sequitirs, which you stubbornly refuse to acknowledge in the least degree despite several people patiently demonstrating the problem to you. And then you throw quite obnoxious responses the way of anyone who has tried to engage meaningfully with your points, such as they are. Assuming you have the intellectual equipment to prosecute a rational argument at this level of complexity, one is almost forced to assume you are doing all this deliberately to be obnoxious. But making the judgment of charity that this is not the case, you would be better exercising a little humility and acknowledging that it's all a bit over your head, rather than continue to behave as you are.
 
Friend, the issue that almost everyone is pointing out to you is that your posts here are filled with unsupported assertions and non-sequitirs, which you stubbornly refuse to acknowledge in the least degree despite several people patiently demonstrating the problem to you. And then you throw quite obnoxious responses the way of anyone who has tried to engage meaningfully with your points, such as they are. Assuming you have the intellectual equipment to prosecute a rational argument at this level of complexity, one is almost forced to assume you are doing all this deliberately to be obnoxious. But making the judgment of charity that this is not the case, you would be better exercising a little humility and acknowledging that it's all a bit over your head, rather than continue to behave as you are.
Brother, I have not had one response in which someone actually did as I have asked. Decompose/disprove the OP premises or prove non-sequitur of my informal logic. All I have had are these ad hominem responses like yours or red herrings, so yes, I may get a little snarky in my responses. Why don’t you give it a shot and give me an example of your undoubtably stunning logic? Easy to sit and snipe - put your money where your mouth is, bubba. Charity indeed.

The simple fact is, I have presented an argument aligned to the RPW and supported by the Psalms themselves to refute the error of EP.
 
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If you think that the great deeds of the Christ of God are recorded only in the NT, then you are mistaken.
 
If you think that the great deeds of the Christ of God are recorded only in the NT, then you are mistaken.
And if you think depriving the Bride of her opportunity to sing of the Bridegroom’s revealed deeds in the NT is ok, then you are deceived.
 
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"The sun is purple and therefore the grass is pink."

But you're begging the question, you've already assumed your conclusion is true and I reject the assumption that the sun is purple to begin with.

"Nice try, but not one person has been able to falsify my premises."

:scratch:

This is not iron sharpening iron, this is a waste of time.

You say yours is "an approach I have not seen before concerning the error of EP". Maybe you've never seen it before because it's nonsensical and childish. I've seen many reasonable and dare I say, respectable arguments against EP but this is not one of them. And if it has been pointed out to you numerous times why it is nonsensical and foolishness (from any standpoint, not just from an EP standpoint) and you still reject it, then well, nothing more can be said.

Proverbs 12:15
 
"The sun is purple and therefore the grass is pink."

But you're begging the question, you've already assumed your conclusion is true and I reject the assumption that the sun is purple to begin with.

"Nice try, but not one person has been able to falsify my premises."

:scratch:

This is not iron sharpening iron, this is a waste of time.

You say yours is "an approach I have not seen before concerning the error of EP". Maybe you've never seen it before because it's nonsensical and childish. I've seen many reasonable and dare I say, respectable arguments against EP but this is not one of them. And if it has been pointed out to you numerous times why it is nonsensical and foolishness (from any standpoint, not just from an EP standpoint) and you still reject it, then well, nothing more can be said.

Proverbs 12:15
And here we go again. Logan, yours was the closest attempt at doing what I asked, but now, here we are. Take another shot, man - really expose the errors of my premises, one by one, then show how my conclusions just are not reasonable.
 
"The sun is purple and therefore the grass is pink."

But you're begging the question, you've already assumed your conclusion is true and I reject the assumption that the sun is purple to begin with.

"Nice try, but not one person has been able to falsify my premises."

:scratch:

This is not iron sharpening iron, this is a waste of time.

You say yours is "an approach I have not seen before concerning the error of EP". Maybe you've never seen it before because it's nonsensical and childish. I've seen many reasonable and dare I say, respectable arguments against EP but this is not one of them. And if it has been pointed out to you numerous times why it is nonsensical and foolishness (from any standpoint, not just from an EP standpoint) and you still reject it, then well, nothing more can be said.

Proverbs 12:15
Bottom line is, as much as EPers hold that they are true to Scripture and the RPW, when their misalignment to it is exposed, all they can do is rant, shift the goalposts and try to discredit the claimant if the face of admitting the error they have falsely rationalized.
 
"The sun is purple and therefore the grass is pink."

But you're begging the question, you've already assumed your conclusion is true and I reject the assumption that the sun is purple to begin with.

"Nice try, but not one person has been able to falsify my premises."

:scratch:

This is not iron sharpening iron, this is a waste of time.

You say yours is "an approach I have not seen before concerning the error of EP". Maybe you've never seen it before because it's nonsensical and childish. I've seen many reasonable and dare I say, respectable arguments against EP but this is not one of them. And if it has been pointed out to you numerous times why it is nonsensical and foolishness (from any standpoint, not just from an EP standpoint) and you still reject it, then well, nothing more can be said.

Proverbs 12:15
Show me, like explaining to a five year old, how I am begging the question.
 
To all - again, here is what I am asking you to disprove/discredit:

1. The Psalms are a trustworthy guide to proper worship

2. The Psalms command that we sing of the wondrous works and deeds of the Lord

3. The New Testament is the source of the most thorough and complete accounting of the mighty and wondrous works and deeds of the Lord Jesus

Or point out where these premises don’t lead to the OP conclusion.
 
To all - again, here is what I am asking you to disprove/discredit:

1. The Psalms are a trustworthy guide to proper worship

2. The Psalms command that we sing of the wondrous works and deeds of the Lord

3. The New Testament is the source of the most thorough and complete accounting of the mighty and wondrous works and deeds of the Lord Jesus

Or point out where these premises don’t lead to the OP conclusion.
Maybe I’ve missed it, but just to be clear, would you mind expressing your understanding of the Regulative Principle?
 
*Moderator hat on:* If this discussion doesn't cool down pretty quickly, it will get shut down. Stick to the issues, rather than ridiculing the other side. This goes for both sides.
 
The argument is: The Psalms command we sing of all the works and deeds of Jesus.
Your beginning premise, your argument, is flawed. That's the whole problem. It's flawed because the Psalms don't command this at all. The Psalms command us to sing. What we are to sing is revealed in Psalm 22:22 and Hebrews 2:12-- Christ will sing of the Father in the great congregation. He composed the Psalms, he is present with us in public worship, he leads us by his Spirit in singing spiritual songs. "I will declare thy name unto my brethren: in the midst of the congregation will I praise thee." This is Christ speaking to the Father, and applies to OT and NT, as repeated and quoted by the apostle in Hebrews.

Christ will not sing man-made words. His words always were and always will be of divine origin. Therefore, the congregation must also sing divine words, as we sing what he sings. We tell what he tells. We confess what he confesses. We sing in the Spirit.
 
Maybe I’ve missed it, but just to be clear, would you mind expressing your understanding of the Regulative Principle?
It is in the first section of the OP, but I have no issue restating it.

Very simply and in summary, the RPW states, if an element pertaining to worship is not commanded in Scripture, it is prohibited. And likewise, if an element is commanded, it is required.
 
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Your beginning premise, your argument, is flawed. That's the whole problem. It's flawed because the Psalms don't command this at all. The Psalms command us to sing. What we are to sing is revealed in Psalm 22:22 and Hebrews 2:12-- Christ will sing of the Father in the great congregation. He composed the Psalms, he is present with us in public worship, he leads us by his Spirit in singing spiritual songs. "I will declare thy name unto my brethren: in the midst of the congregation will I praise thee." This is Christ speaking to the Father, and applies to OT and NT, as repeated and quoted by the apostle in Hebrews.

Christ will not sing man-made words. His words always were and always will be of divine origin. Therefore, the congregation must also sing divine words, as we sing what he sings. We tell what he tells. We confess what he confesses. We sing in the Spirit.
Thank you, Jeri, I believe you are addressing my 2nd premise. "The Psalms command we sing of the Lord's mighty works and deeds."

I provided what I believe are in context Scriptures to back that statement up.

Would you please show how those scriptures do not command what I have asserted? To make sure we are aligned, you have stated my argument is flawed and then made a series of unsubstantiated EP-aligned assertions that do not correlate to directly discrediting my premise. Please take those verses and put them into a more appropriate context that shows they are not commanding us to sing of the Lord Jesus' mighty works and deeds.
 
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The singing of the psalms satisfies your premise 2. Premise 3 is irrelevant since you have added a condition that the scriptures don’t speak to I.e. whether the wondrous works we sing need to be the most “thorough and complete” revelation of those mighty works. Therefore your conclusion is a non sequiter since it assumes those conditions which haven’t been proven to be necessary.
 
To all - again, here is what I am asking you to disprove/discredit:

1. The Psalms are a trustworthy guide to proper worship

2. The Psalms command that we sing of the wondrous works and deeds of the Lord

3. The New Testament is the source of the most thorough and complete accounting of the mighty and wondrous works and deeds of the Lord Jesus

Or point out where these premises don’t lead to the OP conclusion.
Not sure why I'm even bothering, but, premises 1 and 2 are fine. Premise 3 is the one you are resting your entire conclusion on, and it is talking about something completely different to premise 2 - it stands or falls with the qualifier "most thorough and complete", which you left out of premise 2, and if you modified premise 2 with it then premise 2 would be false. Thus, premises 1 and 2, while true, are entirely unrelated to your conclusion. Premise 3 is broadly true in itself, but not actually relevant to the discussion (you introduce the unrelated premises 1 and 2 to make it appear that it is related, but these premises dont relate to premise 3 as shown above). Thus, the conclusion does not actually follow from premise 3, and would only follow if premise 2 was modified with the same qualifier as premise 3, but if you did that then premise 2 would be false. At a basic level, this is the flaw in your logic, as I suspect you may have already been aware.

Edit to point out that @jw pointed this out to you more elegantly and plainly in post 70, and your only response was "wow".

2nd Edit: @EvanVK put the same thing much more succinctly immediately above.
 
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I’m still wondering why EP
Your beginning premise, your argument, is flawed. That's the whole problem. It's flawed because the Psalms don't command this at all. The Psalms command us to sing. What we are to sing is revealed in Psalm 22:22 and Hebrews 2:12-- Christ will sing of the Father in the great congregation. He composed the Psalms, he is present with us in public worship, he leads us by his Spirit in singing spiritual songs. "I will declare thy name unto my brethren: in the midst of the congregation will I praise thee." This is Christ speaking to the Father, and applies to OT and NT, as repeated and quoted by the apostle in Hebrews.

Christ will not sing man-made words. His words always were and always will be of divine origin. Therefore, the congregation must also sing divine words, as we sing what he sings. We tell what he tells. We confess what he confesses. We sing in the Spirit.
Sincere question, why would we only be able to sing psalms and not the other divine songs in the OT? I asked this yesterday to the thread in general but it was never answered because there was so much other activity. I think it got lost in the shuffle, so to speak.

I’ve always wondered this.
 
Not sure why I'm even bothering, but, premises 1 and 2 are fine. Premise 3 is the one you are resting your entire conclusion on, and it is talking about something completely different to premise 2 - it stands or falls with the qualifier "most thorough and complete", which you left out of premise 2, and if you modified premise 2 with it then premise 2 would be false. Thus, premises 1 and 2, while true, are entirely unrelated to your conclusion. Premise 3 is broadly true in itself, but not actually relevant to the discussion (you introduce the unrelated premises 1 and 2 to make it appear that it is related, but these premises dont relate to premise 3 as shown above). Thus, the conclusion does not actually follow from premise 3, and would only follow if premise 2 was modified with the same qualifier as premise 3, but if you did that then premise 2 would be false. At a basic level, this is the flaw in your logic, as I suspect you may have already been aware.

Edit to point out that @jw pointed this out to you more elegantly and plainly in post 70, and your only response was "wow".

2nd Edit: @EvanVK put the same thing much more succinctly immediately above.
Thank you, I do appreciate the attempt.

So, to restate, you agree with premise 1 and 2, but you do not believe that they are related in any way to premise 3, (which you also agree with) but you don't show how they are unrelated. You just make unsubstantiated assertions. Is Jesus not the Lord? Are his mighty works and deeds referenced in the Scriptures I quoted not most thoroughly and completely revealed in the NT? Help me understand better the disconnect.
 
I’m still wondering why EP

Sincere question, why would we only be able to sing psalms and not the other divine songs in the OT? I asked this yesterday to the thread in general but it was never answered because there was so much other activity. I think it got lost in the shuffle, so to speak.

I’ve always wondered this.

It's refreshing to see some honest inquiry :)

One could go into a lot of detail on this but I think a short reason is that the songs in the Psalter are very clearly put together with the idea of corporate worship. Mary's magnificat, or Hannah's song, etc., are not. It's more of a historical recording of a song that was uttered at that point in time and there doesn't seem to be any intention of it being preserved for use in corporate worship.
 
It's refreshing to see some honest inquiry :)

One could go into a lot of detail on this but I think a short reason is that the songs in the Psalter are very clearly put together with the idea of corporate worship. Mary's magnificat, or Hannah's song, etc., are not. It's more of a historical recording of a song that was uttered at that point in time and there doesn't seem to be any intention of it being preserved for use in corporate worship.
Without fully addressing your response to the post you quoted, which I believe is flawed, but not tied to OP:

I think you are violating the Mods direction to not ad hominem the other side, brother, by implying I, or someone else, am not honest in inquiry.
 
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