Taylor Sexton said:
She actually did, in a sense. She did not at all prove it is not phenomenological language. She merely asserted that it isn't and then quoted the cited passage. My point is that you can't prove your point by quoting the disputed passage. That is, to me, a form of question begging.
Perhaps I am too used to these arguments so that I understand the shorthand arguments and then read in the longer ones, but she said: "because the inspired
writer of Scripture in this
historical account clearly
states that what Joshua commanded happened." That is an interpretive point. Maybe it doesn't constitute "proof," since some premises are missing, but if a reason beside the question is given, the question is not begged. Anyway, it seems silly to me to argue "she said/she didn't say," so I'll leave it there; at the very least, further argumentation on her end is needed since this argument did not grab you.
Thanks for the R Scott Clark reference. I have read it before.
I'm not sure if your bolded comment is directed to my post. If it is, I understood your position fine. I was only commenting on the exegetical issues regarding arguing for or against geocentrism, since those are different positions than your own.