Marrow Man
Drunk with Powder
I like to listen to James White's Dividing Line webcast whenever I can. A few weeks ago he was making comments concerning a Roman Catholic's view of "the church." In the course of the discussion, Dr. White mentioned something along the lines of "as right as Augustine was in the Pelagian controversy, he was just as wrong in the Donatist controversy" (please understand that is not an exact quote, that is just the gist of what he said; I can go back and link the broadcast and the time marker if that would be helpful). Then he mentioned a statement by B.B. Warfield that seemed to back up the claim.
This was a little surprising to me. Now, I understand that because of Augustine, the Roman Catholic church after him went too far, resulting in the Medieval view of the church and an almost magical view of the sacraments. However, I would not consider Augustine's basic points in the controversy -- that the validity of a sacrament does not depend on the virtue of the minister who administers it and that the church is always a mixture of true and false believers -- to not only be correct but also consistent with later Reformed ecclesiology. So exactly how is Augustine "wrong" here?
Dr. White did not go indepth into the comment (it was almost a comment made in passing), and I certainly do not wish to impugn him in any way, but one could easily take from the comment that the Donatists might have been on to something! I understand that one's presuppositions about ecclesiology might factor into this (i.e., White's understanding of congregational church gov't might be a partial motivator, but that would not explain Warfield obviously), but I am still scratching my head on the issue.
Any help on this issue would be appreciated. Please understand that I do not desire this thread to become a debate about different forms of church gov't. I realize that this might need to be a part of the discussion, but the reason I placed this in the Church History forum is because that is where I would like the bulk of the discussion to take place.
This was a little surprising to me. Now, I understand that because of Augustine, the Roman Catholic church after him went too far, resulting in the Medieval view of the church and an almost magical view of the sacraments. However, I would not consider Augustine's basic points in the controversy -- that the validity of a sacrament does not depend on the virtue of the minister who administers it and that the church is always a mixture of true and false believers -- to not only be correct but also consistent with later Reformed ecclesiology. So exactly how is Augustine "wrong" here?
Dr. White did not go indepth into the comment (it was almost a comment made in passing), and I certainly do not wish to impugn him in any way, but one could easily take from the comment that the Donatists might have been on to something! I understand that one's presuppositions about ecclesiology might factor into this (i.e., White's understanding of congregational church gov't might be a partial motivator, but that would not explain Warfield obviously), but I am still scratching my head on the issue.
Any help on this issue would be appreciated. Please understand that I do not desire this thread to become a debate about different forms of church gov't. I realize that this might need to be a part of the discussion, but the reason I placed this in the Church History forum is because that is where I would like the bulk of the discussion to take place.