You might find
this previous discussion helpful.
This discussion shows
why people care about it, and that it is a debate not to be had in isolation.
This is a
very attractively phrased post, although it should be noted that William Whitaker has no difficulty affirming the point considered too facile.
And
this discussion might also prove illuminating.
Great summary Ruben. Do you ever read things you wrote in the past and think: "Did I write that?" I don't even know if I could reconstruct those thoughts from scratch at this point but still remain convinced that Creationism accords with the imputation of Adam's guilt. Bruce's post is, indeed, an illuminating point to consider.
For a thumbnail sketch of why it would be consequential to consider this from a Systematic standpoint, if we look at Romans 5 we read:
Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men. For as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man's obedience the many will be made righteous. Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, so that, as sin reigned in death, grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
(Romans 5:18-21 ESV)
Notice the symmetry between the first and second Adam that Paul is pressing:
Adam - Trespass -> Condemnation
Christ - Righteousness -> Justification
If our guilt for the one trespass is not by imputation then how does this parallel the accounting of Christ's righteousness to us? This is not a problem for anti-Federalists who deny imputation but we believe the Scriptures teach that Christ's righteousness is imputed to us.
In other words, the logic of Romans 5 impels us to conclude that Adam's guilt is imputed to us federally because we understand from other clear passages that Christ's righteousness is imputed to us federally. If we conclude that Adam's guilt is not federally imputed then this will lead us to conclude that the manner of our righteousness from Christ is likewise not federally imputed.
Backing this up to traducianism, the view holds that men's souls are a subdivision of Adam's original soul such that men's souls really are present in Adam at the time of the transgression. We are guilty because we "really" participated in the sin of Adam. Guilt is not imputed but it is guilt arising from our real participation in it. Likewise, then, are we righteous in Christ because we are
really righteous? It's not as if we can say that believers participate in a subdivision of Christ's human soul so we can't say that we participated really in His obedience in that manner so how does the parallel work in the passage cited?
I'm not saying that my short answer satisfies all objections but it should help the reader understand why this issue is not insignificant when you start unpacking some of the implications of traducianism.