How was this section of the II Helvetic understood?
What's the history of the view on the kind of Sabbatarianism that the Synod at Dordt and the Westminster Assembly took?
Edit2: To clarify, I am asking for clarifications on the historical views. I used to hold this view for a short time before accepting the view expressed in the Westminster Confession of Faith
What's the history of the view on the kind of Sabbatarianism that the Synod at Dordt and the Westminster Assembly took?
The Heidelberger seems a little broad tooTHE LORD'S DAY. Hence we see that in the ancient churches there were not only certain set hours in the week appointed for meetings, but that also the Lord's Day itself, ever since the apostles' time, was set aside for them and for a holy rest, a practice now rightly preserved by our Churches for the sake of worship and love.
SUPERSTITION. In this connection we do not yield to the Jewish observance and to superstitions. For we do not believe that one day is any holier than another, or think that rest in itself is acceptable to God. Moreover, we celebrate the Lord's Day and not the Sabbath as a free observance.
Edit: Ursinus' commentary seems to suggest his view was similar to the II HelveticQuestion 103. What does God require in the fourth commandment?
Answer: First, that the ministry of the gospel and the schools be maintained; (a) and that I, especially on the sabbath, that is, on the day of rest, diligently frequent the church of God, (b) to hear his word, (c) to use the sacraments, (d) publicly to call upon the Lord, (e) and contribute to the relief of the poor. (f) Secondly, that all the days of my life I cease from my evil works, and yield myself to the Lord, to work by his Holy Spirit in me: and thus begin in this life the eternal sabbath. (g)
Edit2: To clarify, I am asking for clarifications on the historical views. I used to hold this view for a short time before accepting the view expressed in the Westminster Confession of Faith
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