Scholarly Question...

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Hamalas

whippersnapper
Random question: why do the older theologians (18th-19th century etc...) cite Scripture with both Roman and Arabic numerals? For example, they might say Genesis XII.8. Why the combination of systems rather than the consistent use of one?
 
It was traditional, at the time. It wasn't until after World War II (believe it or not) that Arabic numerals began to be used consistently in Bible citations.
 
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