Romans 5:18 "One Act of Righteousness" and Imputed Active Obedience

TryingToLearn

TryingToLearn

Puritan Board Freshman
Hi! I've been trying to study the imputation of Christ's active obedience, but this seems really hard for me to defend exegetically. Even Charles Hodge said, "Paul never expressly states that the righteousness of Christ is reckoned to believers", so this is one of those doctrines that takes some work to show. I've read through John Piper's "Counted Righteous in Christ" to try to find some defense of the verses used to argue for imputed active obedience, but I'd like to know if there's any better exegetical reasons for specifically understanding the "one act of righteousness" in Romans 5:18 as Christ's entire life of righteous obedience rather than specifically his death? The way I naturally read it is that Paul is referring to Christ's passive obedience specifically in his death since that's what he was focusing on in 5:8-9.

Feel free to defend any other verse used to support IAO as well, I'm just mostly curious whether we can specifically use Romans 5:18 to defend the doctrine, or rather Paul intended to focus only on Christ's passive obedience in his death here. And if anyone knows of any good books that provide a exegetical defense of the imputation of Christ's active obedience throughout his life, let me know.

Thank you

:)
 
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It is a clear teaching in our confessional standards:

"The Lord Jesus, by his perfect obedience, and sacrifice of himself, which he, through the eternal Spirit, once offered up unto God, hath fully satisfied the justice of his Father; and purchased, not only reconciliation, but an everlasting inheritance in the kingdom of heaven, for all those whom the Father hath given unto him." (WCF 8:5)

The Roman's 5:18 passage you gave is remarkable because it establishes Christ's headship as the second Adam. The passage clearly identifies his righteousness as the agency that enables him to supplant the first Adam.

We also have Hebrews 9:14 that names Jesus as the one who could be offered unblemished to God. His was not a passive sacrifice like the lambs of the Old Covenant, he offered himself in a conscious, righteous act. The link between his sacrifice and perfect obedience is also made in Heb. 4:15: "For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet he did not sin."
 
If I recall, so do correct me if I am wrong, Romans 5:18 has been translated as "the righteousness of one."
Isaiah 53 is pretty clear as well.
 
arapahoepark said:
If I recall, so do correct me if I am wrong, Romans 5:18 has been translated as "the righteousness of one."
Isaiah 53 is pretty clear as well.
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According to the interlinear on Blue Letter Bible "heis dikaioma" = one act of righteousness. The ESV, NASB both have it that way and the NKJV has "through one man's righteous act".

Isaiah 53 is very clear as far as passive obedience in the imputation of our sin to him (bearing the curse of sin) goes, but doesn't say anything explicitly about Christ's righteous life (active obedience) being imputed to us.
 
TryingToLearn said:
Isaiah 53 is very clear as far as passive obedience in the imputation of our sin to him (bearing the curse of sin) goes, but doesn't say anything explicitly about Christ's righteous life (active obedience) being imputed to us.
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An argument from silence is not a particularly robust way to approach Isaiah 53. It would be analogous to saying, it does not explicitly state the diety of Christ, therefore he is not God. What's more, a link actually is made in 53:11b between Christ's righteousness and saving work:
"By His knowledge my righteous servant will justify many and he will bear their iniquities." I'm puzzled by your approach.
 
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Maybe I'm not understanding what you're asking for so correct me if I've missed answering your question.

"18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men."

This section of the verse speaks of Adam's sin condemning the human race to spiritual and physical death and Christ's passive obedience (death on the cross) giving us spiritual life and at that Last Day physical life (resurrection). This is justification. In justification, we are made alive or regenerated and we are no longer dead in our trespasses. It only puts us where Adam was before he sinned. Now after justification we need sanctification which righteousness is worked within us because of Jesus' active obedience which was imputed to us which the following verse states.

"19 For as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man's obedience the many will be made righteous."

This speaks of Adam's active disobedience that passed sin down to every human being. We followed Adam's pattern of sinning because we were dead and had no righteousness. It also speaks of Christ's active obedience which makes us righteous. If Christ had come down from heaven and gone straight to the cross, that would have only placed us back into the Garden before Adam sinned. But this verse speaks about the one man's active obedience which makes us righteous through sanctification only because of "the one man's obedience". Justification doesn't make us righteous it only puts us in right standing with God. We are still full of sin and our life is a life of sanctification "good works that he ordained from the beginning of the world that we should walk in them". But we don't work out our sanctification from our own works. Instead, Christ's obedience makes us righteous because his obedience is imputed to us. Without Christ's active obedience to call our own through which God views us, we would have no hope of having a righteousness to call our own.

"20 Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21 so that, as sin reigned in death, grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."

Again, this verse speaks of the righteousness of Christ (his active obedience) for us.

Isaiah 53:11 speaks of his righteousness being imputed upon us.

Out of the anguish of his soul he shall see and be satisfied;
by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous
 
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jwithnell said:
An argument from silence is not a particularly robust way to approach Isaiah 53. It would be analogous to saying, it does not explicitly state the diety of Christ, therefore he is not God. What's more, a link actually is made in 53:11b between Christ's righteousness and saving work:
"By His knowledge my righteous servant will justify many and he will bear their iniquities." I'm puzzled by your approach.
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Sorry I just now read what you wrote. I didn't mean to reiterate what you said but I think it shows unity in understanding so that's good!
 
OPC'n said:
Maybe I'm not understanding what you're asking for so correct me if I've missed answering your question.

"18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men."

This section of the verse speaks of Adam's sin condemning the human race to spiritual and physical death and Christ's passive obedience (death on the cross) giving us spiritual life and at that Last Day physical life (resurrection). This is justification. In justification, we are made alive or regenerated and we are no longer dead in our trespasses. It only puts us where Adam was before he sinned. Now after justification we need sanctification which righteousness is worked within us because of Jesus' active obedience which was imputed to us which the following verse states.

"19 For as by the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man's obedience the many will be made righteous."

This speaks of Adam's active disobedience that passed sin down to every human being. We followed Adam's pattern of sinning because we were dead and had no righteousness. It also speaks of Christ's active obedience which makes us righteous. If Christ had come down from heaven and gone straight to the cross, that would have only placed us back into the Garden before Adam sinned. But this verse speaks about the one man's active obedience which makes us righteous through sanctification only because of "the one man's obedience". Justification doesn't make us righteous it only puts us in right standing with God. We are still full of sin and our life is a life of sanctification "good works that he ordained from the beginning of the world that we should walk in them". But we don't work out our sanctification from our own works. Instead, Christ's obedience makes us righteous because his obedience is imputed to us. Without Christ's active obedience to call our own through which God views us, we would have no hope of having a righteousness to call our own.

"20 Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21 so that, as sin reigned in death, grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."

Again, this verse speaks of the righteousness of Christ (his active obedience) for us.

Isaiah 53:11 speaks of his righteousness being imputed upon us.

Out of the anguish of his soul he shall see and be satisfied;
by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous
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So, you're saying that verse 18 is focusing specifically on Christ's passive obedience in the specific act of the cross, but verse 19 is referring to Christ's active obedience throughout his life?
That's close to how I read it.

Many theologians (like Piper in his "Counted Righteous in Christ" book) say that verse 18's "one act" isn't referring to the cross, but rather to Christ's entire life of active obedience. My question is asking how this could be proven to be the case exegetically.

As far as Isaiah 53:11,

"by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous"

I don't see how this could be argued as showing Christ's righteousness is imputed to us. Rather it says, "by his knowledge" Christ shall "make many to be accounted righteous", not necessarily that "by his righteousness" he shall "make many to be accounted righteous".
 
TryingToLearn said:
So, you're saying that verse 18 is focusing specifically on Christ's passive obedience in the specific act of the cross, but verse 19 is referring to Christ's active obedience throughout his life?
That's close to how I read it.

Many theologians (like Piper in his "Counted Righteous in Christ" book) say that verse 18's "one act" isn't referring to the cross, but rather to Christ's entire life of active obedience. My question is asking how this could be proven to be the case exegetically.

As far as Isaiah 53:11,

"by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant,
make many to be accounted righteous"

I don't see how this could be argued as showing Christ's righteousness is imputed to us. Rather it says, "by his knowledge" Christ shall "make many to be accounted righteous", not necessarily that "by his righteousness" he shall "make many to be accounted righteous".
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It’s how I read it but I could be wrong.
As for Isaiah, remember the verse in the NT where it says he learned obedience through suffering. When you learn something, you have knowledge of it so one could say that “by his knowledge” is another way of saying “the obedience that Jesus learned” he shall make many to be accounted righteous. This then would be speaking of his active obedience.
 
2 Corinthians 5:21 is another.
Read Brian Vicker's Jesus' Blood And Righteousness? Or Michael Horton's two volume work 'Justification'?
 
arapahoepark said:
2 Corinthians 5:21 is another.
Read Brian Vicker's Jesus' Blood And Righteousness? Or Michael Horton's two volume work 'Justification'?
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I haven't, but I'll definitely check those out. I just bought, "The Doctrine on Which the Church Stands Or Falls" edited by Matthew Barrett, which hopefully addresses this pretty well.
 
This isn't about Romans 5, but I just wanted to put this John Owen quote here:

It is excepted, with more colour of sobriety, that he was made under he law only as to the curse of it. But it is plain in the text that Christ was made under the law as we are under it. He was “made under the law, to redeem them that were under the law.” And if he was not made so as we are, there is no consequence from his being made under it unto our redemption from it. But we were so under the law, as not only to be obnoxious unto the curse, but so as to be obliged unto all the obedience that it required; as hath been proved. And if the Lord Christ hath redeemed us only from the curse of it by undergoing it, leaving us in ourselves to answer its obligation unto obedience, we are not freed nor delivered. And the expression of “under the law” doth in the first place, and properly, signify being under the obligation of it unto obedience, and consequentially only with a respect unto the curse. Gal. iv. 21, “Tell me, ye that desire to be “under the law.” They did not desire to be under the curse of the law, but only its obligation unto obedience; which, in all usage of speech, is the first proper sense of that expression. Wherefore, the Lord Christ being made under the law for us, he yielded perfect obedience unto it for us; which is therefore imputed unto us. For that what he did was done for us, depends solely on imputation
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Found it here: http://www.reformedonline.com/uploads/1/5/0/3/15030584/active_obedience.pdf which is a really good paper on defending IAO.
 
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