No Grace in OT?

[CharlieJ]

Note: This is a church history thread, not a theology thread. I'm interested in how the ancient and medieval church viewed the lot of the OT people of God.

This is from Theodore of Mopsuestia, in his Galatians commentary:

“That which was given through Moses was given with the express intention that those given the Law would live under it and, consequently, receive the righteousness which were settled in a far-off place, so that, separated from every other nation, they would be able to heed with due prudence the law given to them.

...

"The Law, of course, demanded obedience to all its regulations, keeping the people separated from others and so teaching them that no one ought ever to sin. The work of grace, by contrast, fulfills these demands by the resurrection and through immortality which will be ours through the Spirit, so that, governed by the Spirit, we shall not be able to commit any sin.

In any case, righteousness is both within the Law and in Christ, but under the Law one has to earn righteousness by much effort and hard work. This is very difficult; it is, let me assure you, almost impossible to observe scrupulously every requirement of the Law. Sinlessness is not possible in human life; in truth, it can only be obtained by grace. Just so, in the end, we shall sin no more only when we obtain the righteousness which comes from Christ, apart from anything we might be able to do."

On a positive note, the last statement seems like an affirmation of justification by faith. Other than that, I'm puzzled by this whole section. He seems to believe, not just that there was some kind of "works principle" revealed in the law, but that OT people actually had no recourse to salvation apart from fulfilling the law. Is that correct, and do other ancient theologians express similar ideas?

 

[Contra_Mundum]

It might be helpful to read something he wrote specifically on OT situations and conditions, rather than trying to glean his entire OT theology from what is essentially a treatment of a NT text.

I think I can understand what he says concerning the OT Israelites in such a way that emphasizes their separation, and the demand to keep (oh, so carefully) the law; but not in such a way that I come away thinking that he thought they needed to obey (strictly speaking) in order to obtain salvation. What, for example, does ToM think of the sacrificial system?

But I do see how his words could also imply that "much effort and hard work" was actually possible for some few. However, I would want to read more widely to see if or how he qualifies such language.

There is a sense in which, for an OT covenant-member to turn away from the arduous legal-conditions imposed on him, he would in fact be turning away from the hope of salvation. Because is was only buried in the heart of that Law that one found hidden in it (as it were) the grace and mercy of forgiveness.