TryingToLearn
Puritan Board Freshman
So, I'm drawn the the interpretation that Jude is alluding back to Zechariah and thus identifies Michael the Archangel as the pre-incarnate Angel of the Lord, but I see two problems that I'm wondering if you guys would be able to possibly help me with to see if this interpretation can work.
First of all, the interpretation has to understand "the body of Moses" as referring to the priesthood/Israel (cf. "the body of Christ") to fit Zechariah's context, but I have no idea if this term was used in this way back in Jude's time. The fact that the early church fathers took the phrase to refer to Moses' literal body from a now-lost ending of "The Assumption of Moses" seems to argue against this being a common phrase that Jude's readers would have understood.
Second of all, Michael is referred to as "one of the chief princes" in Daniel 10:13. This would seem to put Jesus in a high rank, yet still equal to a few other "chief princes". Is this translated correctly? And would this not be decisive in excluding Jesus as a possible identification of Michael?
First of all, the interpretation has to understand "the body of Moses" as referring to the priesthood/Israel (cf. "the body of Christ") to fit Zechariah's context, but I have no idea if this term was used in this way back in Jude's time. The fact that the early church fathers took the phrase to refer to Moses' literal body from a now-lost ending of "The Assumption of Moses" seems to argue against this being a common phrase that Jude's readers would have understood.
Second of all, Michael is referred to as "one of the chief princes" in Daniel 10:13. This would seem to put Jesus in a high rank, yet still equal to a few other "chief princes". Is this translated correctly? And would this not be decisive in excluding Jesus as a possible identification of Michael?