Is psalm IV about election?

[Sam Jer]

Is it legitimate to interpret psalm 4:3 "But know that the LORD hath set apart him that is godly for himself" (AV) about unconditional election? Or does it merely talk about his favour being shown to the godly man?

Full psalm, 1650 Psalter:

Give ear unto me when I call,
God of my righteousness:
Have mercy, hear my pray'r; thou hast
enlarg'd me in distress.

O ye the sons of men! how long
will ye love vanities?
How long my glory turn to shame,
and will ye follow lies?

But know, that for himself the Lord
the godly man doth choose:
The Lord, when I on him do call,
to hear will not refuse.

Fear, and sin not; talk with your heart
on bed, and silent be.
Off 'rings present of righteousness,
and in the Lord trust ye.

O who will shew us any good?
is that which many say:
But of thy countenance the light,
Lord, lift on us alway.

Upon my heart, bestow'd by thee,
more gladness I have found
Than they, ev'n then, when corn and wine
did most with them abound.

I will both lay me down in peace,
and quiet sleep will take;
Because thou only me to dwell
in safety, Lord, dost make.

 

[Polanus1561]

The text itself states a condition here - he that is godly.

edit: what I meant is that I do not see how you can see UC particularly here

 

[RamistThomist]

The text itself states a condition here - he that is godly.

edit: what I meant is that I do not see how you can see UC particularly here

Agreed. It's one of those "right doctrine, wrong text."

 

[Sam Jer]

The text itself states a condition here - he that is godly.

edit: what I meant is that I do not see how you can see UC particularly here

Agreed. It's one of those "right doctrine, wrong text."

Yeah, I see that now. Of course the doctrine has very strong support elsewhere.