Joseph Scibbe
Puritan Board Junior
So, I was reading "The Case for Covenant Infant Baptism" yesterday and it had a table of the examples of baptism in the NT and it said that when we see adults only the examples are of Jews and when we see families being baptized together it is of gentile families. Would it be safe to assume that the reason that we don't see Jewish families being baptized is that we should naturally assume that bthe Jews would understand the correlation between the signs and would automatically baptize their children and that because the gentiles were unfamiliar with the sign of circumcision and we are told of them baptizing their families to show the continuation of the practice. Or am I just thinking too much into this? If you don't understand the question, just let me know.