kalawine
Puritan Board Junior
OK, I'm setting myself up here. A while back I posted that I had been nominated as a deacon at the PCA Church that I am a member of. I made it clear that I was a "shoo-in" (not my words; someone else said that in a reply to my post but it was quite obvious from my post) What I DID NOT say (or mean) is that I was considering accepting the nomination BECAUSE I was a "shoo-in."
One guy (I don't remember who it was) thought that I should refuse acceptance because I am a divorcee. I'm not here to attack his opinion so let me get that out of the way up front. I respect that view though I don't hold to it myself. For the first forty years of my life I held that same view but I don't now. There were others that did not agree with him. It turned into somewhat of a minor "mini debate." I lost interest and didn't go back to it. But lately I've been thinking that maybe I should have given my perspective instead of just bailing on the debate.
Anyway, here's what I'd like to have your opinions on (No angry debaters please). I'm particularly interested in what you Presbyterians in the PCA (like me) believe but I wouldn't mind hearing from Baptists, Dutch Reformed or other Presbyterian denominations. Here is my question:
If the Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter XXIV, section V reads in the following way (and of course it does):
V. Adultery or fornication committed after a contract, being detected before marriage, gives just occasion to the innocent party to dissolve that contract. In the case of adultery after marriage, it is lawful for the innocent party to sue out a divorce and, after the divorce, to marry another, as if the offending party were dead.
AND IF this reading means that someone like myself (my wife left me and broke our contract and I made it clear even after that that I would have forgiven her and tried to work things out: she would not have it) has a right to lawfully divorce AND to marry another "AS IF THE OFFENDING PARTY WERE DEAD"... doesn't that also mean that I have a "right" to act as a deacon (servant to our people) "AS IF THE OFFENDING PARTY WERE DEAD?"
I know I made this a loooong question but tell me: If my ex is (or isn't according to some demoninations) "dead" to me then wouldn't remarriage (which I haven't done after eleven years BTW) be a much more questionable issue than becoming a servant that visits the sick, provides for the poor, helps widows, mows the Church's lawn, works on the Church's plumbing etc. Can't the Lord use me to do tasks that most people see as demeaning in the first place since I commited the "sin" of allowing my ex to leave me against my will?
Please forgive the sarcasm (I'm terrible that way) but that is the way it looks to me.
One guy (I don't remember who it was) thought that I should refuse acceptance because I am a divorcee. I'm not here to attack his opinion so let me get that out of the way up front. I respect that view though I don't hold to it myself. For the first forty years of my life I held that same view but I don't now. There were others that did not agree with him. It turned into somewhat of a minor "mini debate." I lost interest and didn't go back to it. But lately I've been thinking that maybe I should have given my perspective instead of just bailing on the debate.
Anyway, here's what I'd like to have your opinions on (No angry debaters please). I'm particularly interested in what you Presbyterians in the PCA (like me) believe but I wouldn't mind hearing from Baptists, Dutch Reformed or other Presbyterian denominations. Here is my question:
If the Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter XXIV, section V reads in the following way (and of course it does):
V. Adultery or fornication committed after a contract, being detected before marriage, gives just occasion to the innocent party to dissolve that contract. In the case of adultery after marriage, it is lawful for the innocent party to sue out a divorce and, after the divorce, to marry another, as if the offending party were dead.
AND IF this reading means that someone like myself (my wife left me and broke our contract and I made it clear even after that that I would have forgiven her and tried to work things out: she would not have it) has a right to lawfully divorce AND to marry another "AS IF THE OFFENDING PARTY WERE DEAD"... doesn't that also mean that I have a "right" to act as a deacon (servant to our people) "AS IF THE OFFENDING PARTY WERE DEAD?"
I know I made this a loooong question but tell me: If my ex is (or isn't according to some demoninations) "dead" to me then wouldn't remarriage (which I haven't done after eleven years BTW) be a much more questionable issue than becoming a servant that visits the sick, provides for the poor, helps widows, mows the Church's lawn, works on the Church's plumbing etc. Can't the Lord use me to do tasks that most people see as demeaning in the first place since I commited the "sin" of allowing my ex to leave me against my will?
Please forgive the sarcasm (I'm terrible that way) but that is the way it looks to me.