seajayrice
Puritan Board Sophomore
Is there biblical evidence for the practice and what are the proofs of the practice in the apostolic church?
Thanks.
Thanks.
Female infant baptism, biblical warrant?
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InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
"One of the major changes now (unlike in the Old Testament times of circumcision), one of the great mysteries, once hidden in the counsel of God which has now been revealed, is the equality of all believers in Christ regardless of ethnic origin, language, gender, etc (the catholicity of the church). Previously, it seemed that only the physical children of Abraham could be heirs of the promise, and the equality of male and female was not so clear, but of course, John the Baptist's preaching was true (Luke 3:8). Seeing this, it is obvious that if baptism is to be a sign of the new covenant, it must now be given also to females. Why did God design the old sign only for males? There are various reasons, but inconsequential, I think for this discussion. For now it suffices that this serves to show forth more clearly the blessedness of the new covenant (Heb. 8:6-13; or we could say, the fuller revelation of the one covenant)." (Samuel Watterson, "An Answer to Baptistic Imaginations", "Regarding the proper subjects for baptism")
If you're interested in reading the whole article:
An Answer to Baptistic Imaginations
If you're interested in reading the whole article:
An Answer to Baptistic Imaginations
InSlaveryToChrist
Puritan Board Junior
To deny female baptism is to deny the equality of all mankind in Christ, that is, that salvation is offered to all mankind [in Christ].
Phil D.
ὁ βαπτιστὴς
I agree with austinww. Things like gender/age and infant/profession in relation to baptism are largely separate issues. In addition to Lydia's baptism, Luke also seems to anticipate the gender issue by going out of his way to say "...when they believed Philip as he preached good news about the kingdom of God and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women." (Acts 8:12).
Read the book of Hebrews. Christ is superior to all of the images and shadows of the Old Testament and the Old Covenant because Christ is the fulfillment of all those things. Christ has a more excellent ministry, Hebrews says, and He is the mediator of a better covenant which carries better promises for the believer (Hebrews 8.6). Therefore, understanding both circumcision and baptism to be signs and seals of the two covenants we must conclude that baptism is superior to circumcision in every way (Romans 4.11; Ephesians 1.13-14). Under the old covenant provision was only made for the men and the sacrament was very painful and very bloody at that. Baptism, on the other hand, is superior because both men and women can partake of the sign and seal of the covenant and it does not require the painful shedding of blood. Christ has already shed His blood and the law has been internalized in the hearts of the believer (Ezekiel 36; Jeremiah 31-33). This was the entire point of circumcision, which is why Moses speaks of circumcising the heart and not the flesh (Deuteronomy 10.16, 30.6), and Jeremiah seems to understand well enough Moses' final exhortation to Israel before they come into the land (Jeremiah 4.4, 24.7), but it would seem that many of the Jews throughout Biblical history never grasped this and they became infatuated with tracing their lineage and performing their work of circumcision- which they counted as their salvation (John 8, Acts 15, Galatians). Christ has secured better promises for believers by grace through faith in Him alone and the things which the sacraments picture for us are applied through faith in His finished work, for believers of all generations.
Marrow Man
Drunk with Powder
Mod Reminder: This is a paedobaptism answers thread; according to the thread rules, "only paedobaptists may answer questions posed to clarify the Confessional understanding of the Sacrament of Baptism." 
Good and necessary consequence.
Scott1
Puritanboard Commissioner
Not really.
Remember- the term "mankind" and "man" often includes male and female. Although there are some places in the New Testament that apply specifically to men (e.g. husbands, church officers such as bishops, elders and deacons) and some that apply to woman (e.g. wives, widows, mothers), much applies to both, in Adam, male and female.
Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
This is a significant text, as it obliterates the Law's distinctions (where they were ordained by God) separating women from a good deal of the outward and ceremonious religious life of the nation. Women, in general, spent a significantly larger part of their lives in a ceremonially unclean state. And in that state, no one could participate in the religious externals of Israel.
Baptism is a ceremonious practice of the Christian church. It can be applied to women, and it is applied to women in the NT. And Gal.3:28 is sufficient justification for the practice (and by extension, the book of Hebrews, etc., as has been mentioned).
This is a significant text, as it obliterates the Law's distinctions (where they were ordained by God) separating women from a good deal of the outward and ceremonious religious life of the nation. Women, in general, spent a significantly larger part of their lives in a ceremonially unclean state. And in that state, no one could participate in the religious externals of Israel.
Baptism is a ceremonious practice of the Christian church. It can be applied to women, and it is applied to women in the NT. And Gal.3:28 is sufficient justification for the practice (and by extension, the book of Hebrews, etc., as has been mentioned).
seajayrice
Puritan Board Sophomore
Thanks Bruce, never considered that text in this light, something to think about.
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