Egalitarianism and Paul's First-Person Pronoun Usage

SkylerGerald

Puritan Board Freshman
I recently heard an argument for egalitarianism which made the case that because Paul uses the first-person pronoun (the English text conveying the sense embedded in the first-person verb) in 1 Tim 2:12 he is therefore sharing advice and not instituting a command. Has anyone else come across this before? This is a new and unconvincing argument to me. Still, I want to see if this reasoning is shared by any notable egalitarian theologians.
 
I haven't come across this before. The same logic would seem to make the rest of 1 Tim 2 entirely optional as well, since the whole chapter is cast in the first person.
 
Paul argues for it based on God's design in the order of creation, so no, it's not a matter of opinion.

"And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction" (2 Peter 3:15-16).

I guess that goes for the parts that are easy to be understood, too.

But no, I've never heard that argument. I don't see how someone who sincerely wants to submit to scripture could believe that.
 
Last edited:
What do they do with 1 Corinthians 14:36-38?

Is there something in the original language that sets that statement in a different light?

"Or did the word of God come originally from you? Or was it you only that it reached? If anyone thinks himself to be a prophet or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things which I write to you are the commandments of the Lord. But if anyone is ignorant, let him be ignorant."

1 Corinthians 14:36-38
 
What do they do with 1 Corinthians 14:36-38?

Is there something in the original language that sets that statement in a different light?

"Or did the word of God come originally from you? Or was it you only that it reached? If anyone thinks himself to be a prophet or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things which I write to you are the commandments of the Lord. But if anyone is ignorant, let him be ignorant."

1 Corinthians 14:36-38
They say two rather bizarre things:
1. It was written back in the time when women would hoot and holler in the assemblies and Paul tells them to shut up.
Or
2. It is not original based on different manuscripts having it in different places in the letter.
 
They say two rather bizarre things:
1. It was written back in the time when women would hoot and holler in the assemblies and Paul tells them to shut up.
Or
2. It is not original based on different manuscripts having it in different places in the letter.

So their argument for women being able to preach is rooted in the fact that at one time, according to them, women were so obnoxious that Paul had to issue an apostolic "Shut up!"?

I don't even know how to respond to that.
 
Back
Top