dfranks
Puritan Board Freshman
Greetings! I could really use some help from my great PuritanBoard brothers who know a thing or two about Edwards. My question comes from "Religious Affections" section 3 sign 2. (pg. 240 in the Yale edition)
My problem is trying to reconcile John Piper's "Christian Hedonism" and Edward's statement "The first objective ground of gracious affections, is the transcendently excellent and amiable nature of divine things, as they are in themselves; and not any conceived relation they bear to self, or self-interest." (emphasis mine)
Edward's point seems to be that our pursuit of God glory as a means to our own joy (self-interest) is always a "secondary and consequential influence" never primary.
Now Piper says that he has developed much of his understand of Christian Hedonism from Edwards (along with Lewis) but I have a problem seeing how Edwards statements can advocate Piper's claims.
A major theses of Piper's "Christian Hedonism" is that all people seek happiness (self-interest) and that it is right and natural for them to seek that in God. Sam Storms' chapter on Christian Hedonism in "For the Fame of God's Name" boldly phrases it like this "To come to God or to worship him or to yield to his moral will for any reason other than joy that is found in who he is, is sinful."
Am I reading Edwards or perhaps Piper wrong? Your thoughts would be appreciated. Thanks!
My problem is trying to reconcile John Piper's "Christian Hedonism" and Edward's statement "The first objective ground of gracious affections, is the transcendently excellent and amiable nature of divine things, as they are in themselves; and not any conceived relation they bear to self, or self-interest." (emphasis mine)
Edward's point seems to be that our pursuit of God glory as a means to our own joy (self-interest) is always a "secondary and consequential influence" never primary.
Now Piper says that he has developed much of his understand of Christian Hedonism from Edwards (along with Lewis) but I have a problem seeing how Edwards statements can advocate Piper's claims.
A major theses of Piper's "Christian Hedonism" is that all people seek happiness (self-interest) and that it is right and natural for them to seek that in God. Sam Storms' chapter on Christian Hedonism in "For the Fame of God's Name" boldly phrases it like this "To come to God or to worship him or to yield to his moral will for any reason other than joy that is found in who he is, is sinful."
Am I reading Edwards or perhaps Piper wrong? Your thoughts would be appreciated. Thanks!