pgwolv
Puritan Board Freshman
I was talking with a Provisionist who said that Calvinism equals fatalism. I referred him to pieces written by BB Warfield and HM Curry, discussing the difference between the two concepts. He keeps on claiming that Calvinism makes God impersonal. Specifically, he said, " God is personal when he saves someone, but can you really say that God "interacts on a personal level" with the person he has condemned because he determined they would sin?"
My question is, does God interact on a personal level with the reprobate? It can be seen all over Scripture that He interacts with His children, as their Father, Prophet, Priest, King, etc, but what about the rest? Are they vessels meant for destruction, with no form of interaction from God, only the evidence of nature?
As a secondary note, related to God's sovereign decree, which we also discussed, am I correct in saying that the same action can be a sin or not, depending on the intent? The Jews caused Jesus to be crucified in a sinful manner, because of their hatred for Him, whereas God caused Jesus to be crucified because of His love for His children. This person seems to disagree, saying that if God causes sin, albeit in a secondary manner, that means the sin is His intention. I can feel that he is wrong, but it is difficult for me to put it into words. Obviously, the two wills of God, as often discussed by Rev MacMahon and others, is not an easy topic to wrap one's head around, if it is even possible; I just want to know that I am on the right track in a theological sense.
My question is, does God interact on a personal level with the reprobate? It can be seen all over Scripture that He interacts with His children, as their Father, Prophet, Priest, King, etc, but what about the rest? Are they vessels meant for destruction, with no form of interaction from God, only the evidence of nature?
As a secondary note, related to God's sovereign decree, which we also discussed, am I correct in saying that the same action can be a sin or not, depending on the intent? The Jews caused Jesus to be crucified in a sinful manner, because of their hatred for Him, whereas God caused Jesus to be crucified because of His love for His children. This person seems to disagree, saying that if God causes sin, albeit in a secondary manner, that means the sin is His intention. I can feel that he is wrong, but it is difficult for me to put it into words. Obviously, the two wills of God, as often discussed by Rev MacMahon and others, is not an easy topic to wrap one's head around, if it is even possible; I just want to know that I am on the right track in a theological sense.