I have really loved the revised Christian Standard Bible for a while now. However, one thing that bugs me about it is the inconsistent rendering of δικαιόω in Romans. It is about 50/50—rendered "justify" in some places and "declare righteous" in the rest. It is "justify" in every other occurrence outside of Romans (where in reference to soteriology, that is).
I am wondering if anyone else has noticed this and can find some kind of rhyme or reason to it. I have thought, "Well, maybe they render it 'declare righteous' when it is an active verb and God is the subject, and 'justify' when it is passive and man is the subject," or something to that effect. But I can't seem to find any pattern. It really bothers me, not for my sake, but for the sake of those who read the CSB without original language knowledge. Since some of the renderings do not have footnotes noting the alternative rendering (another odd inconsistency), some such readers might be led to believe that there are two different Greek terms underlying the English text.
Any thoughts?
I am wondering if anyone else has noticed this and can find some kind of rhyme or reason to it. I have thought, "Well, maybe they render it 'declare righteous' when it is an active verb and God is the subject, and 'justify' when it is passive and man is the subject," or something to that effect. But I can't seem to find any pattern. It really bothers me, not for my sake, but for the sake of those who read the CSB without original language knowledge. Since some of the renderings do not have footnotes noting the alternative rendering (another odd inconsistency), some such readers might be led to believe that there are two different Greek terms underlying the English text.
Any thoughts?