I don't want to derail the RCSproul/RCCbaptism thread, but why would the RCC would be considered apostate now in a way that it wasn't at the time of the Reformation? What happened at the Council of Trent?
If the Pope was called the antichrist back at the time of the Reformers, what happened that the RCC was more acceptable then than now? How did they go from "antichrist but baptisms are valid", to something even worse such that now Sproul is saying baptisms are invalid?
Thanks in advance for a brief history lesson.
If the Pope was called the antichrist back at the time of the Reformers, what happened that the RCC was more acceptable then than now? How did they go from "antichrist but baptisms are valid", to something even worse such that now Sproul is saying baptisms are invalid?
Thanks in advance for a brief history lesson.