TryingToLearn
Puritan Board Freshman
I'm going through the course on Van Til's Trinitarian Theology at Reformed Forum and Dr. Lane Tipton was talking about how Van Til sided with Calvin and Warfield in denying that the divine essence is communicated to the Son in eternal generation. He also mentioned this isn't the majority view of the Reformed, but I haven't really thought about the idea.
Berkhof clearly disagrees with Calvin/Van Til/Warfield and writes,
This is the very verse that came to my mind and is the reason why I think the Bible teaches the communication of divine essence to the Son, even though I think Calvin and Van Til's denial of it makes logical sense. Anyways, my question is, how would one interpret this verse without seeing the communication of divine essence to the Son from the Father, as it says, "so gave He to the Son also to have life in Himself", which seems pretty clear that aseity is communicated to the Son from the Father, even if that seems logically paradoxical. I'm a huge Van Til guy, but I can't see any way else to interpret John 5:26 and I'm unsure whether communication of divine essence has been taught historically or not, as I haven't looked into it. Anyways, I'm interested to get any thoughts on this, as I haven't thought much about this.
Berkhof clearly disagrees with Calvin/Van Til/Warfield and writes,
In the work of generation there was a communication of essence; it was one indivisible act. And in virtue of this communication the Son also has life in Himself. This is in agreement with the statement of Jesus, "For as the Father hath life in Himself, even so gave He to the Son also to have life in Himself," John 5:26
This is the very verse that came to my mind and is the reason why I think the Bible teaches the communication of divine essence to the Son, even though I think Calvin and Van Til's denial of it makes logical sense. Anyways, my question is, how would one interpret this verse without seeing the communication of divine essence to the Son from the Father, as it says, "so gave He to the Son also to have life in Himself", which seems pretty clear that aseity is communicated to the Son from the Father, even if that seems logically paradoxical. I'm a huge Van Til guy, but I can't see any way else to interpret John 5:26 and I'm unsure whether communication of divine essence has been taught historically or not, as I haven't looked into it. Anyways, I'm interested to get any thoughts on this, as I haven't thought much about this.
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