Beards
Puritan Board Freshman
Hello,
I recently came out of postmillennialism and became amillennial, but I have a friend who is still postmill that I’ve been having good conversations with. He brought up a verse that I was curious about as it relates to this issue. I’m curious how those who are amill on this forum would interpret this verse and respond to my friend.
Basically he argued amill can’t ultimately make sense of the reconciliation in heaven and earth, whether thrones or dominions, that Christ brings in Colossians 1:20. He says this makes perfect sense in his postmill eschatology of cultural transformation, because Christ does redeem all these things, including the earthly thrones and powers, over time in history. When I pointed out that I thought the most consistent reading in light of Paul’s eschatology is that this refers to Christ’s redeeming His Church, the creation, and subduing His enemies under Him, begun at the first coming and consummated at the second, he responded that it wasn’t enough. Enemies being subdued, he said, is not reconciliation, and so we were back again to how all things in heaven and earth, including powers and dominions, are reconciled by the blood of His cross. He’s convinced it teaches his view of gradual culture transformation and postmillenialism, and although I think he’s missing the boat, I still don’t fully understand how to view the passage myself completely.
Any thoughts?
I recently came out of postmillennialism and became amillennial, but I have a friend who is still postmill that I’ve been having good conversations with. He brought up a verse that I was curious about as it relates to this issue. I’m curious how those who are amill on this forum would interpret this verse and respond to my friend.
Basically he argued amill can’t ultimately make sense of the reconciliation in heaven and earth, whether thrones or dominions, that Christ brings in Colossians 1:20. He says this makes perfect sense in his postmill eschatology of cultural transformation, because Christ does redeem all these things, including the earthly thrones and powers, over time in history. When I pointed out that I thought the most consistent reading in light of Paul’s eschatology is that this refers to Christ’s redeeming His Church, the creation, and subduing His enemies under Him, begun at the first coming and consummated at the second, he responded that it wasn’t enough. Enemies being subdued, he said, is not reconciliation, and so we were back again to how all things in heaven and earth, including powers and dominions, are reconciled by the blood of His cross. He’s convinced it teaches his view of gradual culture transformation and postmillenialism, and although I think he’s missing the boat, I still don’t fully understand how to view the passage myself completely.
Any thoughts?