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The Old Covenant wasn't merely outward and temporal. It was essentially spiritual while also having outward and temporal aspects.How is it that the Old Covenant is merely outward and temporal if God keeps telling the Israelites to circumcise the foreskins of their hearts?
So how was it not the Covenant of Grace?The Old Covenant wasn't merely outward and temporal. It was essentially spiritual while also having outward and temporal aspects.
Why do you assume it wasn't?So how was it not the Covenant of Grace?
So how was it not the Covenant of Grace?
The Old Covenant was the covenant of grace. Do you think this principle necessitates paedobaptism? If so, why?
Same Grace, different administrations.
I could never make sense of 1 Cor 10:1-4 with what you stated above. Genuinely asking how you would interpret this passage in light of what you said... How would you explain v3, 4 & 5 being that the Covenant of Grace starts in the NT.
1 Cor 10:1-4
10 For I do not want you to be ignorant of the fact, brothers and sisters, that our ancestors were all under the cloud and that they all passed through the sea. 2 They were all baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea. 3 They all ate the same spiritual food 4 and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ. 5 Nevertheless, God was not pleased with most of them; their bodies were scattered in the wilderness.
We need a covenant of grace to save us from Covenant of Works we fell in. The New Covenant is the full manifestation of this Covenant of Grace (LBCF 7.3), wherein Jesus Christ is fully set forth without types and shadows. Christ's death was efficacious from the foundation of the world (Rev 13:8)Why do we need a New Covenant if the Old Covenant is the Covenant of Grace?
How is the New Covenant better if (Hebrews 8:6) if the Old Covenant is the Covenant of Grace?
We need a covenant of grace to save us from Covenant of Works we fell in. The New Covenant is the full manifestation of this Covenant of Grace (LBCF 7.3), wherein Jesus Christ is fully set forth without types and shadows. Christ's death was efficacious from the foundation of the world (Rev 13:8)
Brother,Because the New Covenant is the Covenant of Grace.
If the Old Covenant was the Covenant of Grace, we wouldn't have needed the New Covenant.
If the Old Covenant was the Covenant of Grace, every member of the Old Covenant would have had circumcised hearts and not need to be told to have circumcised hearts.
Brother,
If I may ask, how do you square equating the Covenant of Grace and the New Covenant with the language of our Confession which speaks of them as two distinct things?
This covenant [of grace] is revealed in the gospel; first of all to Adam in the promise of salvation by the seed of the woman, and afterwards by farther steps, until the full discovery thereof was completed in the New Testament.—Baptist Confession of Faith, VII.3
How can the full revelation of the Covenant of Grace be "completed in the New Testament" if it is the New Testament?
To get this thread back to the original topic:How is it that the Old Covenant is merely outward and temporal if God keeps telling the Israelites to circumcise the foreskins of their hearts?