gangelo
Puritan Board Freshman
Can we 100% prove the existence of God, due to the impossibility of the contrary?
Doesn't the presuppositional argument for the existence of God basically boil down to the Christian theistic worldview being the only worldview that makes rational sense?
For example, Christian theists can make rational sense of Universal Abstract Entities (UAE)** such as the Laws of Logic and Morality, as well as the Uniformity of Nature. Conversely, the Atheist cannot make sense of these, because atheists cannot rationally account for UAE's in their purely materialistic universe. The Muslim, for example, cannot make sense of these either, because the Koran portrays "Allah" as capricious in nature; therefore, the Uniformity of Nature, Laws of Logic and Morality cannot rationally be considered universal or invariant, so on, and so forth.
However, if the Christian theist is left with the only worldview that rationally "makes sense" of the aforementioned, does this 100% prove the existence of God? If something makes rational sense, by virtue, must it also reflect reality? At best, doesn't this simply make the rational argument for the existence of God irrefutable, as opposed to the existence of God irrefutable?
Either way, I know there is no amount of "proof" the atheist, muslim, etc., will accept regarding the existence of God without their presuppositions changing, and that through regeneration; I'm asking from a purely rational point of view.
** That which is transcendental, universal, invariant, self-evident?
Doesn't the presuppositional argument for the existence of God basically boil down to the Christian theistic worldview being the only worldview that makes rational sense?
For example, Christian theists can make rational sense of Universal Abstract Entities (UAE)** such as the Laws of Logic and Morality, as well as the Uniformity of Nature. Conversely, the Atheist cannot make sense of these, because atheists cannot rationally account for UAE's in their purely materialistic universe. The Muslim, for example, cannot make sense of these either, because the Koran portrays "Allah" as capricious in nature; therefore, the Uniformity of Nature, Laws of Logic and Morality cannot rationally be considered universal or invariant, so on, and so forth.
However, if the Christian theist is left with the only worldview that rationally "makes sense" of the aforementioned, does this 100% prove the existence of God? If something makes rational sense, by virtue, must it also reflect reality? At best, doesn't this simply make the rational argument for the existence of God irrefutable, as opposed to the existence of God irrefutable?
Either way, I know there is no amount of "proof" the atheist, muslim, etc., will accept regarding the existence of God without their presuppositions changing, and that through regeneration; I'm asking from a purely rational point of view.
** That which is transcendental, universal, invariant, self-evident?